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Exam Code:200-125
Exam Name:Cisco Certified Network Associate
Certification Provider:Cisco
Free Question Number:390
Version:v2018-02-24
Rating:
# of views:2926
# of Questions views:304625
Go To 200-125 Questions

Recent Comments (The most recent comments are at the top.)

ayman - Jul 14, 2019

No.# Explanation:
Source Mac AddressDestination Mac AddressSource IP addressDestination MAC address MAC 0000.0c89.9999MAC 0000.0c89.3333IP 172.16.21.7IP 172.16.34.250

ayman - Jul 14, 2019

No.# Explanation:
Source Mac AddressDestination Mac AddressSource IP addressDestination MAC address MAC 0000.0c89.9999MAC 0000.0c89.3333IP 172.16.21.7IP 172.16.34.250

ayman - Jul 14, 2019

No.# Explanation:
Source Mac AddressDestination Mac AddressSource IP addressDestination MAC address MAC0000.0c89.9999MAC 0000.0c89.3333IP 172.16.21.7IP 172.16.34.250

Zonas - Apr 11, 2019

No.# B is correct

Zonas - Apr 11, 2019

No.# Correct answer C

Zonas - Apr 11, 2019

No.# Correct answer C

Zonas - Apr 11, 2019

No.# Correct answer B

Zonas - Apr 11, 2019

No.# AC are correct answers

Zonas - Apr 11, 2019

No.# Correct answers AC

Zonas - Apr 11, 2019

No.# Correct answer B

Zonas - Apr 11, 2019

No.# Correct answer E

Zonas - Apr 11, 2019

No.# Switch to router : straight-through
Switch to switch : crossover
PM Com port: rollover

Zonas - Apr 11, 2019

No.# D is correct

Zonas - Apr 11, 2019

No.# Correct answer A

Zonas - Apr 11, 2019

No.# BD correct answer

Zonas - Apr 11, 2019

No.# Disables the switch port when it receives a BPDU = BPDU guard
Drops all BPDUs received on the switch port = BPDU filter
Enable quick convergence when a direct link to a non-end device fails. = UplinkFast
Forces the switch to transition directly from the blocking state to the forwarding state = PortFast
Prevents the port from becoming a blocked port = root guard

Zonas - Apr 10, 2019

No.# CE correct answers

Zonas - Apr 10, 2019

No.# AB correct answers

Zonas - Apr 10, 2019

No.# D is correct

Zonas - Apr 10, 2019

No.# I will put filtering in data plane and establishes Telnet sessions in control plane

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Exam Question List
Question 1: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The exhibit is showing the t...
Question 2: Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?...
Question 3: Which functionality does an SVI provide?...
Question 4: Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN a...
Question 5: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator is c...
Question 6: Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address repre...
Question 7: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Switch port FastEthernet 0/2...
Question 8: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What two results would occur...
Question 9: DRAG DROP Drag and Drop the descriptions of IP protocol tran...
Question 10: Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across th...
Question 11: What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChan...
Question 12: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the steps to configure a basic GRE t...
Question 13: (Exhibit) refer to the exhibit , on R1, which routing protoc...
Question 14: Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs...
Question 15: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The Bigtime router is unable...
Question 16: Which command can you enter to set the default route for all...
Question 17: Under which circumstance should a network administrator impl...
Question 18: Which command can you enter to display the operational statu...
Question 19: After you configure theip dns spoofingcommand globally on a ...
Question 20: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided t...
Question 21: Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowi...
Question 22: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) According to the routing tab...
Question 23: Which VTP mode prevents you from making changes to vlans?...
Question 24: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Switch-1 needs to send data ...
3 commentQuestion 25: DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is exchanging packets w...
Question 26: What two things will a router do when running a distance vec...
Question 27: CORRECT TEXT The following have already been configured on t...
Question 28: Which of the port is not part of STP protocol.?...
Question 29: Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which ...
Question 30: Which logging command can enable administrators to correlate...
Question 31: Which command enables RSTP on a switch?...
Question 32: What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing ...
Question 33: What feature you should use to analyse and monitor your traf...
Question 34: What are the two minimum required components of a DHCP bindi...
Question 35: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the values in a routing table from t...
Question 36: A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configur...
Question 37: Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? ...
Question 38: refer to the exhibit: (Exhibit) what is the metric for the r...
Question 39: Which three options are the major components of a network vi...
Question 40: Which statement about switch access ports is true?...
Question 41: For which two reasons might you choose chassis aggregation i...
Question 42: Which of the following is a security best practice?...
Question 43: If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway...
Question 44: which feature must you enable to distribute vlans automatica...
Question 45: Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement message...
Question 46: Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? ...
Question 47: which three options are fields in a basic ethernet data fram...
Question 48: Which function of the IP SLAs ICMP jitter operation can you ...
Question 49: Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range ...
Question 50: Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSR...
Question 51: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network shown in the dia...
Question 52: Which statement describes the effect of the exec-timeout 30 ...
Question 53: Which two characteristics are representatives of a link-stat...
Question 54: Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has connected t...
Question 55: Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is c...
Question 56: Which destination IP address can a host use to send one mess...
Question 57: In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices...
Question 58: Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cos...
Question 59: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator is a...
Question 60: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator cannot conn...
Question 61: (Exhibit) R1#show running-config interface Loopback0 descrip...
1 commentQuestion 62: Which two criteria must be met to support the ICMP echo IP S...
Question 63: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) IF R1 sends traffic to 192.1...
Question 64: What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?...
Question 65: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What commands must be config...
Question 66: which add prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 address ...
Question 67: Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to ...
Question 68: How does a Cisco switch respond if you boot it without a val...
Question 69: In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:000...
Question 70: What is the subnet address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248?...
Question 71: Which HSRP Feature was new in HSRPv2 ?...
Question 72: How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit M...
Question 73: Which technology can provide security when connection multip...
Question 74: Which table displays the MAC addresses that are learned on a...
1 commentQuestion 75: Under normal operations, Cisco recommends that you configure...
Question 76: Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a f...
1 commentQuestion 77: Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?...
Question 78: Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure...
Question 79: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How should the FastEthernet0...
Question 80: A network administrator is trying to add a new router into a...
Question 81: Scenario: Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to...
Question 82: On which type of device is every port in the same collision ...
Question 83: Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (C...
Question 84: DRAG DROP Routing has been configured on the local router wi...
Question 85: Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mis...
Question 86: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which address and mask combi...
Question 87: In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked?...
Question 88: Which statement about using MPLS for WAN connectivity is tru...
Question 89: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A technician is troubleshoot...
Question 90: which two statements about MPLS are true ?...
Question 91: How many host addresses are available on the network 192.168...
Question 92: Which statement about the inside interface configuration in ...
Question 93: which value must you configure on a device beforee EIGRP For...
Question 94: Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT devi...
Question 95: What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF an...
Question 96: Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true ?...
Question 97: Which option is a valid IPv6 address?...
Question 98: If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and t...
1 commentQuestion 99: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the STP features from the left onto ...
Question 100: You are implementing ElGRP between the main office and branc...
Question 101: Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?...
Question 102: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the reason that the ...
Question 103: After you configure a default route to the Internet on a rou...
Question 104: Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (C...
Question 105: Scenario: You work for a company that provides managed netwo...
Question 106: What is one benefit of PVST+?
Question 107: Which statement about spanning tree root bridge election is ...
Question 108: Which VLAN bridge priority value will make a switch as root ...
Question 109: What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?...
Question 110: Which two statements about firewalls are true ?...
Question 111: Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchrono...
1 commentQuestion 112: For which two reasons was RFC 1918 address space define (Cho...
Question 113: In which CLI configuration mode can you configure the hostna...
1 commentQuestion 114: Which command can you enter to re-enable Cisco Discovery Pro...
Question 115: Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?...
2 commentQuestion 116: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use ...
Question 117: DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is sending packets to t...
Question 118: Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigni...
Question 119: What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?...
Question 120: Which three statements about VTP features are true? (Choose ...
Question 121: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Why has this switch not been...
Question 122: While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping fr...
Question 123: Which two steps must you perform on each device that is conf...
Question 124: Which command can you enter to configure an IPv6 floating st...
Question 125: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What statement is true of th...
Question 126: DRAG DROP Drag the cable type on the left to the purpose for...
Question 127: Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:407...
Question 128: An administrator is trying to ping and telnet from SwitchC t...
Question 129: What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Cho...
Question 130: Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD a...
Question 131: Which definition of default route is true?...
1 commentQuestion 132: Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true?...
Question 133: How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to ho...
Question 134: which technology supports multiple dynamic secure connection...
Question 135: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Given the output shown from ...
Question 136: What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)...
Question 137: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which statement is true?...
Question 138: DRAG DROP Drag each definition on the left to the matching t...
Question 139: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the BGP terms from the left onto the...
Question 140: By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learn...
Question 141: Which function does the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation perform ...
Question 142: What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces o...
Question 143: Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN...
Question 144: Which two statements about ipv6 anycast addresses are true ?...
Question 145: Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true...
1 commentQuestion 146: What are three broadband wireless technologies? (Choose thre...
Question 147: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which three statements corre...
Question 148: What levels will be trapped if the administrator executes th...
Question 149: Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?...
Question 150: The enable secret command is used to secure access to which ...
1 commentQuestion 151: Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the in...
Question 152: (Exhibit) Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with ...
Question 153: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the route source codes in a routing ...
Question 154: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What can be determined about...
3 commentQuestion 155: If you change the weight and distance parameters on a device...
Question 156: On which options are standard access lists based?...
Question 157: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The company uses EIGRP as th...
Question 158: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) After you apply the given co...
Question 159: Which statement about 6to4 tunneling is true?...
Question 160: Refer to the exhibit: (Exhibit) after you apply the give con...
Question 161: DRAG DROP Drag the Cisco default administrative distance to ...
Question 162: VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if...
Question 163: Which command can you enter to assign an interface to the de...
Question 164: Refer to the graphic. (Exhibit) Host A is communicating with...
Question 165: Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that ...
Question 166: Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server loc...
Question 167: Which two options are primary responsibilities of the APIC-E...
Question 168: Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?...
Question 169: which three options are benefits of using TACACS+ on a devic...
Question 170: Which statement describes the effect of the overload keyword...
Question 171: Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configur...
Question 172: Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a...
Question 173: What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:8...
Question 174: Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combin...
Question 175: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the PDUs from the left onto the corr...
Question 176: Router R1 has a static router that is configured to a destin...
Question 177: Which Ethernet interface command is present when you boot a ...
Question 178: An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for ...
Question 179: DRAG DROP Drag and drop each advantage of static or dynamic ...
Question 180: Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch i...
Question 181: Which command can you enter to verify that a BGP connection ...
Question 182: Which two security appliances will you use in a network? (Ch...
Question 183: Which three checks must you perform when troubleshooting EIG...
Question 184: Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs ov...
Question 185: Which effect of the passive-Interface command on R1 is true?...
Question 186: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a...
Question 187: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A technician has installed S...
2 commentQuestion 188: Which two statements about fiber cable are true? (Choose two...
Question 189: Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via thei...
Question 190: An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 netwrok, wh...
Question 191: When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that ...
Question 192: Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IO...
Question 193: On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached ...
Question 194: What is true about Cisco Discovery Protocol ?...
Question 195: Which APIC-EM tool allows an administrator to verify ACLs th...
Question 196: What is the benefit of point-to-point leased line ?...
Question 197: A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a ...
Question 198: Which two statements about the extended traceroute command a...
Question 199: Which statement describes the effect of the copy run start c...
Question 200: Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP refe...
Question 201: Which two statements about LLDP are True ? (Choose Two)...
Question 202: Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?...
Question 203: Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropr...
Question 204: If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and t...
Question 205: For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physica...
Question 206: Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface...
Question 207: (Exhibit) Why is the Branch2 network 10.1 0.20.0/24 unable t...
Question 208: Which command can you enter in a network switch configuratio...
Question 209: A network administrator has configured access list 173 to pr...
Question 210: Exhibit: (Exhibit) After you apply the given configuration t...
Question 211: Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch ...
Question 212: Which statement about DTP is true?...
Question 213: A network interface port has collision detection and carrier...
Question 214: Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally locat...
Question 215: which functionality does split horizon provide ?...
Question 216: which six-byte field in a basic ethernet frame must be an in...
Question 217: Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a ...
Question 218: Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?...
Question 219: Which address block identifies all link-local address...
Question 220: In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standar...
Question 221: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network associate has conf...
Question 222: Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking ar...
Question 223: Which three characteristics are representative of a link-sta...
Question 224: Which three statements are true about the operation of a ful...
Question 225: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Based on the exhibited routi...
Question 226: How can you manually configure a switch so that it is select...
Question 227: Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (C...
Question 228: What are three factors a network administrator must consider...
Question 229: Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the cent...
Question 230: Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address ...
Question 231: Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?...
Question 232: Which two passwords must be supplied in order to connect by ...
Question 233: Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS im...
Question 234: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network administrator re...
Question 235: Refer to the exhibit, (Exhibit) you determine that Computer ...
Question 236: Which information is used to install the best route to a des...
Question 237: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the benefits of a cisco wireless Lan...
Question 238: Which three commands are required to enable NTP authenticati...
Question 239: Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has connected t...
Question 240: What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?...
Question 241: You are implementing ElGRP between the main office and branc...
Question 242: Which command can you enter to block HTTPS traffic from the ...
1 commentQuestion 243: Which command can you enter to determine whether serial inte...
1 commentQuestion 244: DRAG DROP Drag the cable type on the left to the purpose for...
Question 245: Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose...
Question 246: The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168...
Question 247: Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)...
Question 248: The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was...
Question 249: Scenario: You work for a company that provides managed netwo...
1 commentQuestion 250: which two options are requirements for configuring ripv2 for...
Question 251: Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?...
Question 252: Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication o...
Question 253: Which 2 statements about extended traceroute command is true...
Question 254: Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connectio...
Question 255: Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?...
Question 256: which major ipv6 address type is supported in ipv4 but rarel...
Question 257: which command can you enter in a network switch configuratio...
Question 258: Which of the following statements describe the network shown...
Question 259: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator pings the d...
Question 260: Which two commands can you enter to verify that a configured...
Question 261: Which two command can you enter to display the current time ...
Question 262: which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 su...
Question 263: Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?...
Question 264: Which command must you enter to enable OSPFv2 in an IPv4 net...
1 commentQuestion 265: Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an ...
Question 266: When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, ho...
Question 267: Which two options will help to solve the problem of a networ...
Question 268: When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is ...
Question 269: Which IPv6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::9 to ...
Question 270: Which command displays CPU utilization?...
Question 271: Which VLAN bridge priority value is assigned by the set span...
Question 272: Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FH...
Question 273: Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?...
Question 274: Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? ...
Question 275: Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one ...
Question 276: Under which two circumstances is network traffic most likely...
Question 277: Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by ...
Question 278: Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged...
Question 279: DRAG DROP A user is unable to connect to the Internet. Based...
Question 280: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the DHCP client states from the left...
Question 281: What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a ...
Question 282: What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)...
Question 283: Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?...
Question 284: A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a re...
Question 285: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A frame on VLAN 1 on switch ...
1 commentQuestion 286: If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logg...
Question 287: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Hosts in network 192.168.2.0...
Question 288: What is a global command?
Question 289: DRAG DROP Drag and Drop the route source codes in a routing ...
Question 290: What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company ...
Question 291: On a live network, which two commands will verify the operat...
Question 292: Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?...
Question 293: Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicas...
Question 294: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Given the output for this co...
Question 295: When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must yo...
Question 296: When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from ...
2 commentQuestion 297: Which two statements about stateful firewalls in an enterpri...
1 commentQuestion 298: Which two statements about Cisco Discovery Protocol are true...
Question 299: Which two statements about configuring an EtherChannel on a ...
Question 300: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The two exhibited devices ar...
Question 301: A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 ...
Question 302: Which two authentication methods are compatible with MLPPP o...
Question 303: Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN i...
Question 304: Which command displays the number of times that an individua...
Question 305: Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? (Ch...
1 commentQuestion 306: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the networking features or functions...
Question 307: Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?...
Question 308: What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address ...
Question 309: Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two )...
Question 310: Refer to the diagram. (Exhibit) All hosts have connectivity ...
Question 311: Refer to Exhibit: (Exhibit) How many broadcast domains are s...
1 commentQuestion 312: How many primary IPv4 addresses can be assigned to an interf...
Question 313: Which statement about LLDP is true?...
Question 314: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which address range efficien...
Question 315: Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry ver...
Question 316: Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU...
Question 317: DRAG DROP Drag the security features on the left to the spec...
Question 318: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A new subnet with 60 hosts h...
Question 319: Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?...
1 commentQuestion 320: Which two benefits can you get by stacking cisco switches ?(...
Question 321: Which command shows your active Telnet connections?...
1 commentQuestion 322: Which two functions can be performed by a local DNS server? ...
Question 323: Which three features are represented by the letter A in AAA ...
Question 324: Which two steps must you perform to enable router-on-a-stick...
Question 325:
Question 326: Which VTP mode prevents you from making changes to VLANs?...
Question 327: Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three....
Question 328: Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a ...
Question 329: Which statement about RADIUS security is true?...
Question 330: You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will ...
Question 331: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the switching concepts from the left...
Question 332: which two types of information are held in the mac address t...
Question 333: What are two advantages of dynamic routing? (Choose two)...
Question 334: Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to a spec...
Question 335: What are the alert messages generated by SNMP agents called?...
Question 336: Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?...
Question 337: How can you disable DTP on a switch port?...
Question 338: ***ip dhcp pool my pool****** ***network 192.168.10.0/27*** ...
Question 339: Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that i...
Question 340: A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing sch...
Question 341: which WAN topology provides a direct conntection from each s...
Question 342: Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image?...
Question 343: Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BG...
Question 344: What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 us...
Question 345: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two statements are tru...
Question 346: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) In this VLSM addressing sche...
Question 347: Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent D...
Question 348: Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to all...
Question 349: which command can you enter to create a NAT Pool of 6 addres...
Question 350: Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in t...
Question 351: CORRECT TEXT Scenario: You work as Junior Network Engineer f...
Question 352: DRAG DROP DRAG DROP (Exhibit)
Question 353: Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and a...
1 commentQuestion 354: How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address?...
Question 355: Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports....
Question 356: What is the function of the command switchport trunk native ...
Question 357: (Exhibit) R1#show running-config interface Loopback0 descrip...
Question 358: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If the devices produced the ...
Question 359: Which option is a valid hostname for a switch?...
Question 360: Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is des...
Question 361: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) All devices attached to the ...
Question 362: Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on...
Question 363: Which purpose of the network command in OSPF configuration m...
Question 364: How many bits represent the network ID in iPv6?...
Question 365: What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose ...
Question 366: Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port...
1 commentQuestion 367: You enter the show ipv6 route command on an OSPF device and ...
Question 368: Which characteristics are representatives of a link-state ro...
Question 369: Which feature is configured by setting a variance that is at...
Question 370: RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running...
Question 371: Which two EtherChannel PAgP modes can you configure? (Choose...
Question 372: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. You have determined that com...
Question 373: DRAG DROP Drag each category on the left to its correspondin...
Question 374: You are working in a data center environment and are assigne...
Question 375: Which action can change the order of entries in a named acce...
Question 376: A BPDU guard is configured on an interface that has PortFast...
Question 377: A router has learned three possible routes that could be use...
Question 378: When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses sho...
Question 379: Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a h...
1 commentQuestion 380: Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 pub...
Question 381: When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing...
1 commentQuestion 382: Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to de...
Question 383: Which tow options describe benefits of aggregated chassis te...
Question 384: Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols...
Question 385: Which two Qos tools can provide congestion management ?...
Question 386: Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can e...
Question 387: Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assig...
Question 388: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the l...
Question 389: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The speed of all serial link...
Question 390: Which configuration enables OSPF for network 192.168.1.0/24?...