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Exam Code:200-125
Exam Name:Cisco Certified Network Associate
Certification Provider:Cisco
Free Question Number:425
Version:v2018-07-22
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Exam Question List
Question 1: VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if...
Question 2: Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is c...
Question 3: What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?...
Question 4: Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements correctly de...
Question 5: Which statement about DTP is true?...
Question 6: Which configuration can you apply to enable encapsulation on...
Question 7: Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to desig...
Question 8: What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be ...
Question 9: Which two statements about EIGRP on IPv6 networks are true? ...
Question 10: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the STP features from the left onto ...
Question 11: What are three broadband wireless technologies? (Choose thre...
Question 12: Refer to the exhibit. Why does the telnet connecting fail wh...
Question 13: Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by ...
Question 14: Which technology can enable multiple VLANs to communicate wi...
Question 15: Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about in...
Question 16: A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet conne...
Question 17: Which command can you enter to determine whether serial inte...
Question 18: Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivi...
Question 19: Which action can change the order of entries in a named acce...
Question 20: Refer to the exhibit. After a RIP route is marked invalid on...
Question 21: Which three options are the major components of a network vi...
Question 22: Which command must you enter to enable OSPFV2 in an IPV4 net...
Question 23: What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?...
Question 24: Which statement about switch access ports is true?...
Question 25: Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about th...
Question 26: Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)...
Question 27: Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (C...
Question 28: A network administrator enters the following command on a ro...
Question 29: Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run...
Question 30: What are three values that must be the same within a sequenc...
Question 31: Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to ...
Question 32: Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?...
Question 33: The access control list shown in the graphic has been applie...
Question 34: Refer to the graphic. Host A is communicating with the serve...
Question 35: Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicas...
Question 36: What is the most efficient subnet mask for a point to point ...
Question 37: Which statement about MPLS is true?...
Question 38: Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the diagram is ex...
Question 39: Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly descr...
Question 40: Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible success...
Question 41: Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a r...
Question 42: Which NTP command configures the local devices as an NTP ref...
Question 43: At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?...
Question 44: Which destination IP address can a host use to send one mess...
Question 45: Which statement about routing protocols is true?...
Question 46: Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a "router-on...
Question 47: Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowi...
Question 48: Refer to the exhibit. For what two reasons has the router lo...
Question 49: Which statement about static routes is true?...
Question 50: What is one reason that WPA encryption is preferred over WEP...
Question 51: After you configure the ip dns spoofing command globally on ...
Question 52: What is the effect of using the service password-encryption ...
Question 53: Which two steps must you perform on each device that is conf...
Question 54: This graphic shows the results of an attempt to open a Telne...
Question 55: On which options are standard access lists based?...
Question 56: Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server loc...
Question 57: Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?...
Question 58: How should a router that is being used in a Frame Relay netw...
Question 59: Which option is a valid IPv6 address?...
Question 60: What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?...
Question 61: Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose th...
Question 62: Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cos...
Question 63: What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)...
Question 64: Refer to the exhibit. Which address range efficiently summar...
Question 65: Which task must you perform to enable an IOS device to use D...
Question 66: A network interface port has collision detection and carrier...
Question 67: Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN co...
Question 68: What can you change to select switch as root bridge?...
Question 69: Which additional configuration step is necessary in order to...
Question 70: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) You determine that Computer ...
Question 71: Refer to the exhibit. Which WAN protocol is being used? (Exh...
Question 72: DRAG DROP Order the DHCP message types as they would occur b...
Question 73: Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN...
Question 74: Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch ...
Question 75: What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider ...
Question 76: Refer to the exhibit: (Exhibit) After you apply the give con...
Question 77: What are two statement for SSH?...
Question 78: Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two.)...
Question 79: Refer to the topology below and answer the following questio...
Question 80: Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?...
Question 81: Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts...
Question 82: Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigni...
Question 83: Which command displays CPU utilization?...
Question 84: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the BGP components from the left ont...
Question 85: Which component of a routing table entry represents the subn...
Question 86: Scenario You are implementing EIGRP between the main office ...
Question 87: In which two circumstances are private IPv4 addresses approp...
Question 88: Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?...
Question 89: Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a n...
Question 90: When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses sho...
Question 91: Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?...
Question 92: Which statement about the inside interface configuration in ...
Question 93: Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?...
Question 94: Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true?...
Question 95: On which type of device is every port in the same collision ...
Question 96: Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where ...
Question 97: In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standar...
Question 98: Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?...
Question 99: Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)...
Question 100: Which two commands can you enter to verify that a configured...
Question 101: Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface...
Question 102: Which type of secure MAC address must be configured manually...
Question 103: Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in th...
Question 104: Which routing protocol has the smallest default administrati...
Question 105: Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?...
Question 106: Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? ...
Question 107: What happens when an 802.11a node broadcasts within the rang...
Question 108: What two things will a router do when running a distance vec...
Question 109: Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)...
Question 110: Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?...
Question 111: Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neig...
Question 112: What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? ...
Question 113: What is one benefit of PVST+?
Question 114: Refer to the topology below and answer the following questio...
Question 115: Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router ...
Question 116: Which type of secure MAC address must be configured manually...
Question 117: Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choos...
Question 118: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the protocols from the left onto the...
Question 119: What is the default Syslog facility level?...
Question 120: What is the function of the command switchport trunk native ...
Question 121: Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless...
Question 122: Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to a spec...
Question 123: Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the follow...
Question 124: Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-...
Question 125: Which 3 feature are represented by A letter in AAA? (Choose ...
Question 126: Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI d...
Question 127: In which two situations should you use out-of-band managemen...
Question 128: A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of phys...
Question 129: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the effect of the gi...
Question 130: Which networking Technology is currently recognized as the s...
Question 131: Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true?...
Question 132: Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynami...
Question 133: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator requires eas...
Question 134: Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwi...
Question 135: How is provided master redundancy on a stacked switches?...
Question 136: Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?...
Question 137: Which option is the main function of congestion management?...
Question 138: DRAG DROP Drag the security features on the left to the spec...
Question 139: Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? ...
Question 140: When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is ...
Question 141: Which two statements about IPv6 address 2002:ab10:beef::/48 ...
Question 142: Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is adding two ...
Question 143: What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug ...
Question 144: Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link...
Question 145: A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 wit...
Question 146: As a CCNA candidate, you must have a firm understanding of t...
Question 147: Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port...
Question 148: The following configuration line was added to router R1 Acce...
Question 149: Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a ...
Question 150: Which command can you enter to configure a local username wi...
Question 151: Which definition of default route is true?...
Question 152: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has created ...
Question 153: Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming rout...
Question 154: Refer to the exhibit. In the Frame Relay network, which IP a...
Question 155: Which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a si...
Question 156: Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true of the configur...
Question 157: Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across th...
Question 158: A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to conne...
Question 159: Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to pi...
Question 160: What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)...
Question 161: Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?...
Question 162: A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a ...
Question 163: Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a W...
Question 164: When troubleshooting Ethernet connectivity issues, how can y...
Question 165: For which two reasons might be you choose chassis aggregatio...
Question 166: A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing sch...
Question 167: Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT devi...
Question 168: Refer to the exhibit. The network is converged. After link-s...
Question 169: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the extended traceroute options from...
Question 170: What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes...
Question 171: A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determ...
Question 172: Which three options are the HSRP states for a router? (Choos...
Question 173: Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Cho...
Question 174: Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?...
Question 175: Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255....
Question 176: A network administrator wants to add a line to an access lis...
Question 177: Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of suc...
Question 178: Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use wh...
Question 179: Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPv4 privat...
Question 180: What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168...
Question 181: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. If the devices produced the ...
Question 182: Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IO...
Question 183: Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?...
Question 184: On a network of one department, there are four PCs connected...
Question 185: When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, i...
Question 186: Refer to the exhibit. What set of commands was configured on...
Question 187: Refer to the exhibit. The technician wants to upload a new I...
Question 188: A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco route...
Question 189: If you want multiple hosts on a network, where do you config...
Question 190: What information does a router running a link-state protocol...
Question 191: What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to tra...
Question 192: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is in a camp...
Question 193: In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicas...
Question 194: DRAG DROP Drag the Cisco default administrative distance to ...
Question 195: Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason that the interface ...
Question 196: Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. After HostA ping...
Question 197: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigne...
Question 198: Which value must you configure on a device before EIGRP for ...
Question 199: Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 a...
Question 200: Which configuration can be used with PAT to allow multiple i...
Question 201: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network associate has conf...
Question 202: It has become necessary to configure an existing serial inte...
Question 203: What levels will be trapped if the administrator executes th...
Question 204: What are three characteristics of satellite Internet connect...
Question 205: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the QoS features from the left onto ...
Question 206: Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference mod...
Question 207: Refer to exhibit: Which destination addresses will be used b...
Question 208: Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?...
Question 209: You enter the show ipv6 route command on an OSPF device and ...
Question 210: Refer to the exhibit. An administrator pings the default gat...
Question 211: Scenario You are implementing EIGRP between the main office ...
Question 212: What are three features of the IPV6 protocol? (Choose three....
Question 213: Refer to the exhibit. When running OSPF, what would cause ro...
Question 214: What is a global command?
Question 215: Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT dev...
Question 216: Which IPv6 address is valid?
Question 217: What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?...
Question 218: While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue, show int...
Question 219: Which commands are required to properly configure a router t...
Question 220: Refer to the exhibit. What set of commands was configured on...
Question 221: When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which...
Question 222: Refer to the graphic. A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 netw...
Question 223: Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an...
Question 224: In order to comply with new auditing standards, a security a...
Question 225: Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the output MTU ...
Question 226: Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choos...
Question 227: DRAG DROP Match the terms on the left with the appropriate O...
Question 228: What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address ...
Question 229: When is a routing table entry identified as directly connect...
Question 230: DRAG DROP Drag the frame relay acronym on the left to match ...
Question 231: Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required f...
Question 232: Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the Syslog output...
Question 233: Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BG...
Question 234: Refer to the exhibit, The VLAN configuration of S1 is not be...
Question 235: Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VL...
Question 236: In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?...
Question 237: Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that i...
Question 238: Which command can you enter in a network switch configuratio...
Question 239: Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports....
Question 240: Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?...
Question 241: Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cos...
Question 242: What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the n...
Question 243: Which statement about recovering a password on a Cisco route...
Question 244: Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured the...
Question 245: Which two IP SLA operations can you use to measure the end-t...
Question 246: Where information about untrusted hosts are stored?...
Question 247: VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if...
Question 248: What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network de...
Question 249: Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol...
Question 250: The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to...
Question 251: An access list was written with the four statements shown in...
Question 252: What is a possible reason why a host is able to ping a web s...
Question 253: Refer to the exhibit. An attempt to deny web access to a sub...
Question 254: For which two reasons was RFC 1918 address space defining (C...
Question 255: In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?...
Question 256: Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface l...
Question 257: Which statement about named ACLs is true?...
Question 258: What are three factors a network administrator must consider...
Question 259: Which command can you enter to display the hits counter for ...
Question 260: What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceede...
Question 261: Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives ...
Question 262: Refer to the exhibit. Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 ha...
Question 263: A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a...
Question 264: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Which user-mode password has...
Question 265: Scenario You are implementing EIGRP between the main office ...
Question 266: Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 a...
Question 267: A network administrator is trying to add a new router into a...
Question 268: When upgrading the IOS image, the network administrator rece...
Question 269: Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes DLCI 17? (Ex...
Question 270: Which two statements about the tunnel mode ipv6ip command ar...
Question 271: When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must yo...
Question 272: What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?...
Question 273: Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?...
Question 274: Refer to the exhibit. The speed of all serial links is E1 an...
Question 275: Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuratio...
Question 276: A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bund...
Question 277: Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting the no l...
Question 278: Refer to the exhibit. Router edge-1 is unable to establish O...
Question 279: Which header field is new on IPv6?...
Question 280: How does using the service password-encryption command on a ...
Question 281: Which option is the industry-standard protocol for EtherChan...
Question 282: RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running...
Question 283: Which name describes an IPV6 host-enable tunneling technique...
Question 284: What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an applica...
Question 285: You are working in a data center environment and are assigne...
Question 286: Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you ex...
Question 287: The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows "PVC ST...
Question 288: Which option is the default switch port port-security violat...
Question 289: Which two passwords must be supplied in order to connect by ...
Question 290: Which two statements about static NAT translations are true?...
Question 291: Refer to the exhibit A frame on vlan 1on switch s1 is sent t...
Question 292: Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP refe...
Question 293: Refer to the exhibit. Given this output for SwitchC, what sh...
Question 294: What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfa...
Question 295: Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link config...
Question 296: If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway...
Question 297: Which two types of information are held in the MAC address t...
Question 298: Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?...
Question 299: Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are t...
Question 300: Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetw...
Question 301: Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip addres...
Question 302: Which two statements about access points are true? (Choose t...
Question 303: Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two.)...
Question 304: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the entire net...
Question 305: Which two statements describe the process identifier that is...
Question 306: Which technology allows a large number of private IP address...
Question 307: In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 h...
Question 308: Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing?...
Question 309: Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connectio...
Question 310: Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to p...
Question 311: Refer to exhibit. A network administrator cannot establish a...
Question 312: As a network administrator, you have been instructed to prev...
Question 313: What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 us...
Question 314: What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces o...
Question 315: Which command shows your active Telnet connections?...
Question 316: Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interfac...
Question 317: Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring...
Question 318: Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information given, which ...
Question 319: Which NTP type designates a router without an external refer...
Question 320: Refer to the topology below and answer the following questio...
Question 321: How can you disable DTP on a switch port?...
Question 322: Refer to the topology below and answer the following questio...
Question 323: What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? ...
Question 324: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. A new subnet with 60 hosts h...
Question 325: Scenario (Exhibit) An administrator is trying to ping and te...
Question 326: Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cis...
Question 327: The following access list below was applied outbound on the ...
Question 328: Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the ...
Question 329: Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection betw...
Question 330: Refer to the exhibit. A technician is troubleshooting host c...
Question 331: What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to oth...
Question 332: Scenario (Exhibit) An administrator is trying to ping and te...
Question 333: Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (C...
Question 334: What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF an...
Question 335: Which major component of the Cisco network virtualization ar...
Question 336: Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PA...
Question 337: The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was...
Question 338: In which CLI configuration mode can you configure the hostna...
Question 339: Which value must a device send as its username when using CH...
Question 340: DRAG DROP A user is unable to connect to the Internet. Based...
Question 341: Which technology allows a large number of private IP address...
Question 342: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the DNS lookup commands from the lef...
Question 343: Refer to the exhibit. The company uses EIGRP as the routing ...
Question 344: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. On R1, which routing protoco...
Question 345: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must establi...
Question 346: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Based on the exhibited routi...
Question 347: Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 a...
Question 348: What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Cho...
Question 349: Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be configured on th...
Question 350: Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is tru...
Question 351: What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called?...
Question 352: Refer to exhibit. What Administrative distance has route to ...
Question 353: The Frame Relay network in the diagram is not functioning pr...
Question 354: Refer to the exhibit. The two exhibited devices are the only...
Question 355: Scenario You are implementing EIGRP between the main office ...
Question 356: Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose...
Question 357: Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?...
Question 358: Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given ...
Question 359: Refer to the exhibit. Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unabl...
Question 360: Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking ar...
Question 361: What are two characteristics of SSH? (Choose two.)...
Question 362: Scenario (Exhibit) An administrator is trying to ping and te...
Question 363: Which of the following IP addresses fall into the CIDR block...
Question 364: While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping fr...
Question 365: Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 4 types of ...
Question 366: On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communica...
Question 367: Which option describes how a switch in rapid PVST+ mode resp...
Question 368: Refer to the exhibit. A problem with network connectivity ha...
Question 369: What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company ...
Question 370: Which three elements must be used when you configure a route...
Question 371: How are VTP advertisements delivered to switches across the ...
Question 372: Which command can you enter to create a NAT pool of 6 addres...
Question 373: DRAG DROP Routing has been configured on the local touter wi...
Question 374: A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 ...
Question 375: Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choos...
Question 376: While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, yo...
Question 377: Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU...
Question 378: Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs...
Question 379: Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination rep...
Question 380: Which RPVST+ port state is excluded from all STP operations?...
Question 381: If host Z needs to send data through router R1 to a storage ...
Question 382: Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?...
Question 383: Which statement about access lists that are applied to an in...
Question 384: Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed devi...
Question 385: Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.)...
Question 386: Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what s...
Question 387: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the values in a routing table from t...
Question 388: What will be the result if the following configuration comma...
Question 389: Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the cur...
Question 390: Which type of attack can be mitigated by configuring the def...
Question 391: What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?...
Question 392: While troubleshooting a connectivity issue from a PC you obt...
Question 393: Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with th...
Question 394: Which item represents the standard IP ACL?...
Question 395: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the IEEE standard cable names from t...
Question 396: Which of the following are key characteristics of PPP? (Choo...
Question 397: Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco...
Question 398: DRAG DROP Drag each definition on the left to the matching t...
Question 399: Which major IPv6 address type is supported in IPv4 but rarel...
Question 400: What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that ...
Question 401: Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the ...
Question 402: All WAN links inside the ABC University network use PPP with...
Question 403: Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the route...
Question 404: Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type...
Question 405: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given co...
Question 406: What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?...
Question 407: Refer to the exhibit. Which command do you enter so that R1 ...
Question 408: Under which circumstance should a network administrator impl...
Question 409: An administrator is unsuccessful in adding VLAN 50 to a swit...
Question 410: Which command enables RSTP on a switch?...
Question 411: Which two pieces of information are provided by the show con...
Question 412: Refer to the graphic. It has been decided that Workstation 1...
Question 413: Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSR...
Question 414: Which two options are fields in an Ethernet frame? (Choose t...
Question 415: Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if ...
Question 416: Refer to the exhibit. The access list has been configured on...
Question 417: Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent D...
Question 418: What is the function of the command switchport trunk native ...
Question 419: What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the comm...
Question 420: Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to de...
Question 421: Which pairing reflects a correct protocol-and-metric relatio...
Question 422: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the DHCP client states from the left...
Question 423: Which statement about LLDP is true?...
Question 424: Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are using a default conf...
Question 425: What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point s...