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Exam Code:	200-125
Exam Name:	Cisco Certified Network Associate
Certification Provider:	Cisco
Free Question Number:	501
Version:	v2018-08-11
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# of Questions views:	241186
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Exam Question List: Question 1: Which two statements about EIGRP on IPv6 networks are true? ...; Question 2: Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to desig...; Question 3: SIMULATION Central Florida Widgets recently installed a new ...; Question 4: A network administrator enters the following command on a ro...; Question 5: Refer to the exhibit. What two results would occur if the hu...; Question 6: Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is c...; Question 7: Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch ...; Question 8: Which value must you configure on a device before EIGRP for ...; Question 9: Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of suc...; Question 10: Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco...; Question 11: Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link...; Question 12: Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)...; Question 13: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given co...; Question 14: SIMULATION CCNA.com has a small network that is using EIGRP ...; Question 15: A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco route...; Question 16: Which type of attack can be mitigated by configuring the def...; Question 17: Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true of the configur...; Question 18: Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true? (Exhibit)...; Question 19: In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standar...; Question 20: Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (C...; Question 21: Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols...; Question 22: OSPF enable on interface with multiple ipv6 prefix which ip ...; Question 23: Which RPVST+ port state is excluded from all STP operations?...; Question 24: Which networking Technology is currently recognized as the s...; Question 25: While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, yo...; Question 26: What are two characteristics of SSH? (Choose two.)...; Question 27: Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Cho...; Question 28: Refer to the exhibit. A problem with network connectivity ha...; Question 29: Which two statements about access points are true? (Choose t...; Question 30: Which effect of the passive-interface command on R1 is true?...; Question 31: What happens when an 802.11a node broadcasts within the rang...; Question 32: What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?...; Question 33: If you want multiple hosts on a network, where do you config...; Question 34: Which statement about a router on a stick is true?...; Question 35: Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an...; Question 36: Which of the following IP addresses fall into the CIDR block...; Question 37: Scenario You are implementing EIGRP between the main office ...; Question 38: Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address ...; Question 39: Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?...; Question 40: A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to conne...; Question 41: Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use wh...; Question 42: Which type of routing protocol operates by using first infor...; Question 43: Which command can you enter in a network switch configuratio...; Question 44: What is the default Syslog facility level?...; Question 45: Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that ...; Question 46: Refer to the exhibit. Router edge-1 is unable to establish O...; Question 47: Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a ...; Question 48: Which IPv6 address is valid?; Question 49: Refer to the exhibit. An administrator pings the default gat...; Question 50: Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?...; Question 51: Which type of routing protocol operates by exchanging the en...; Question 52: SIMULATION A network associate is adding security to the con...; Question 53: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Based on the exhibited routi...; Question 54: Which major component of the Cisco network virtualization ar...; Question 55: Refer to the graphic. It has been decided that Workstation 1...; Question 56: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator normally est...; Question 57: Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose...; Question 58: Which command displays CPU utilization?...; Question 59: When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from ...; Question 60: Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a n...; Question 61: Under which circumstance should a network administrator impl...; Question 62: Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a "router-on...; Question 63: Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the effect o...; Question 64: Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts...; Question 65: The following configuration line was added to router R1 Acce...; Question 66: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. A new subnet with 60 hosts h...; Question 67: How should a router that is being used in a Frame Relay netw...; Question 68: Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing?...; Question 69: Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip addres...; Question 70: Refer to the exhibit. Which command do you enter so that R1 ...; Question 71: Refer to the exhibit. An attempt to deny web access to a sub...; Question 72: What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address ...; Question 73: What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug ...; Question 74: Which two statements about static NAT translations are true?...; Question 75: Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSR...; Question 76: Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combin...; Question 77: While troubleshooting a DCHP client that is behaving erratic...; Question 78: Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the route...; Question 79: What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?...; Question 80: Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?...; Question 81: It has become necessary to configure an existing serial inte...; Question 82: Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be configured on th...; Question 83: Which port security violation mode allows traffic from valid...; Question 84: You enter the show ipv6 route command on an OSPF device and ...; Question 85: Refer to the exhibit. Which address range efficiently summar...; Question 86: Which option is the main function of congestion management?...; Question 87: In which CLI configuration mode can you configure the hostna...; Question 88: The Frame Relay network in the diagram is not functioning pr...; Question 89: What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point s...; Question 90: A network administrator has configured access list 173 to pr...; Question 91: Which statement about named ACLs is true?...; Question 92: Refer to exhibit: Which destination addresses will be used b...; Question 93: Refer to the exhibit A frame on vlan 1on switch s1 is sent t...; Question 94: In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicas...; Question 95: DRAG DROP Routing has been configured on the local touter wi...; Question 96: What is a global command?; Question 97: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigne...; Question 98: Refer to the exhibit. The technician wants to upload a new I...; Question 99: Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to p...; Question 100: Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required f...; Question 101: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the DNS lookup commands from the lef...; Question 102: A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing sch...; Question 103: Which of the following statements describe the network shown...; Question 104: Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the follow...; Question 105: Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 a...; Question 106: Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address?...; Question 107: Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the ...; Question 108: Refer to the exhibit. For what two reasons has the router lo...; Question 109: Which action can change the order of entries in a named acce...; Question 110: Instructions This item containes several questions that you ...; Question 111: SIMULATION A network associate is adding security to the con...; Question 112: On which type of device is every port in the same collision ...; Question 113: Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the cur...; Question 114: Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 pub...; Question 115: Which route source code represents the routing protocol with...; Question 116: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. On R1, which routing protoco...; Question 117: RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running...; Question 118: Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)...; Question 119: What is the effect of the overload keyword in a static NAT t...; Question 120: Refer to Exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown in th...; Question 121: In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?...; Question 122: Which statement about static routes is true?...; Question 123: Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in th...; Question 124: Scenario (Exhibit) An administrator is trying to ping and te...; Question 125: Instructions This item containes several questions that you ...; Question 126: Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason that the interface ...; Question 127: What is a possible reason why a host is able to ping a web s...; Question 128: Refer to the exhibit. In this VLSM addressing scheme, what s...; Question 129: Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that i...; Question 130: DRAG DROP Drag the Cisco default administrative distance to ...; Question 131: Which component of a routing table entry represents the subn...; Question 132: What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:8...; Question 133: Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwi...; Question 134: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the entire net...; Question 135: What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 us...; Question 136: Refer to the exhibit. The speed of all serial links is E1 an...; Question 137: Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255....; Question 138: In order to comply with new auditing standards, a security a...; Question 139: What levels will be trapped if the administrator executes th...; Question 140: Which command can you enter to configure a local username wi...; Question 141: Refer to the topology below and answer the following questio...; Question 142: Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to pi...; Question 143: What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)...; Question 144: Refer to the exhibit. Which WAN protocol is being used? (Exh...; Question 145: Which three options are the HSRP states for a router? (Choos...; Question 146: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is in a camp...; Question 147: Refer to the exhibit. A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent...; Question 148: Which option is the default switch port port-security violat...; Question 149: Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address...; Question 150: Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection betw...; Question 151: Assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range c...; Question 152: Which destination IP address can a host use to send one mess...; Question 153: Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true of the i...; Question 154: Which configuration can be used with PAT to allow multiple i...; Question 155: Which statement about switch access ports is true?...; Question 156: What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the n...; Question 157: Refer to the topology below and answer the following questio...; Question 158: Scenario You are implementing EIGRP between the main office ...; Question 159: Which two statements about switch stacking are true? (Choose...; Question 160: Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a W...; Question 161: Refer to exhibit. A network administrator cannot establish a...; Question 162: Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? ...; Question 163: What are three factors a network administrator must consider...; Question 164: Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch ...; Question 165: Which statement about the inside interface configuration in ...; Question 166: Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynami...; Question 167: Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect t...; Question 168: Which statement about upgrading a cisco IOS device with TFTP...; Question 169: (Exhibit) What destination Layer 2 address will be used in t...; Question 170: Instructions This item containes several questions that you ...; Question 171: Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where ...; Question 172: An administrator is unsuccessful in adding VLAN 50 to a swit...; Question 173: When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must yo...; Question 174: Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose th...; Question 175: Which value must a device send as its username when using CH...; Question 176: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must establi...; Question 177: Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a r...; Question 178: Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuratio...; Question 179: Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link config...; Question 180: Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what s...; Question 181: DRAG DROP Drag each definition on the left to the matching t...; Question 182: What information does a router running a link-state protocol...; Question 183: Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU...; Question 184: What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to tra...; Question 185: Which command must you enter to enable OSPFV2 in an IPV4 net...; Question 186: Refer to the diagram. All hosts have connectivity with one a...; Question 187: What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces o...; Question 188: How can you disable DTP on a switch port?...; Question 189: Which two statements about extended traceroute command are t...; Question 190: Refer to the exhibit. A technician is troubleshooting host c...; Question 191: In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?...; Question 192: What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168...; Question 193: What are three advantages of vlans?...; Question 194: Which option is the industry-standard protocol for EtherChan...; Question 195: This graphic shows the results of an attempt to open a Telne...; Question 196: Which two command can you enter to display the current time ...; Question 197: What is one benefit of PVST+?; Question 198: Refer to the exhibit. Given this output for SwitchC, what sh...; Question 199: Which symptom most commonly indicates that two connecting in...; Question 200: Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives ...; Question 201: Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPv4 privat...; Question 202: Which statement about access lists that are applied to an in...; Question 203: Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information given, which ...; Question 204: When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which...; Question 205: How does using the service password-encryption command on a ...; Question 206: SIMULATION The following have already been configured on the...; Question 207: Refer to the exhibit. In the Frame Relay network, which IP a...; Question 208: Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the output MTU ...; Question 209: Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if ...; Question 210: Which additional configuration step is necessary in order to...; Question 211: Which two options are fields in an Ethernet frame? (Choose t...; Question 212: Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)...; Question 213: Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI d...; Question 214: Refer to the exhibit: (Exhibit) After you apply the give con...; Question 215: Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarizati...; Question 216: Refer to the exhibit. After a RIP route is marked invalid on...; Question 217: What is one reason that WPA encryption is preferred over WEP...; Question 218: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the protocols from the left onto the...; Question 219: Refer to the graphic. A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 netw...; Question 220: Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the diagram is ex...; Question 221: Which option is the main function of congestion management?...; Question 222: A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a ...; Question 223: Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.)...; Question 224: Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?...; Question 225: Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent D...; Question 226: What will be the result if the following configuration comma...; Question 227: Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMP...; Question 228: What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an applica...; Question 229: Which three options are the major components of a network vi...; Question 230: Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming rout...; Question 231: Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible success...; Question 232: Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference mod...; Question 233: What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceede...; Question 234: Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected t...; Question 235: What are the requirement to configure DHCP binding? (Choose ...; Question 236: What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be ...; Question 237: What are three values that must be the same within a sequenc...; Question 238: Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking ar...; Question 239: (Exhibit) Which connection uses the default encapsulation fo...; Question 240: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the STP features from the left onto ...; Question 241: Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choos...; Question 242: Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports o...; Question 243: When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses sho...; Question 244: Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly descr...; Question 245: Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 a...; Question 246: Refer to the topology below and answer the following questio...; Question 247: How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to ho...; Question 248: Which statement about MPLS is true?...; Question 249: When is a routing table entry identified as directly connect...; Question 250: Which statement about LLDP is true?...; Question 251: Which two IP SLA operations can you use to measure the end-t...; Question 252: Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cos...; Question 253: Which device allows users to connect to the network using a ...; Question 254: On which options are standard access lists based?...; Question 255: The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to...; Question 256: Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which ports will...; Question 257: Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?...; Question 258: At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?...; Question 259: Scenario (Exhibit) An administrator is trying to ping and te...; Question 260: Which command do use we to see SNMP version...; Question 261: A network interface port has collision detection and carrier...; Question 262: Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 a...; Question 263: Which command shows your active Telnet connections?...; Question 264: Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring...; Question 265: An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the serv...; Question 266: Refer to exhibit. What Administrative distance has route to ...; Question 267: SIMULATION A network associate is adding security to the con...; Question 268: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Which user-mode password has...; Question 269: After you configure the ip dns spoofing command globally on ...; Question 270: Which two steps must you perform on each device that is conf...; Question 271: Which major IPv6 address type is supported in IPv4 but rarel...; Question 272: Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on...; Question 273: What two things will a router do when running a distance vec...; Question 274: Scenario You are implementing EIGRP between the main office ...; Question 275: What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called?...; Question 276: DRAG DROP Order the DHCP message types as they would occur b...; Question 277: All WAN links inside the ABC University network use PPP with...; Question 278: Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to a spec...; Question 279: Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to ...; Question 280: Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?...; Question 281: Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. After HostA ping...; Question 282: Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interfac...; Question 283: Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?...; Question 284: If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway...; Question 285: Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BG...; Question 286: Refer to the exhibit. Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 ha...; Question 287: Which routing protocol has the smallest default administrati...; Question 288: On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communica...; Question 289: Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is adding two ...; Question 290: Which NTP command configures the local devices as an NTP ref...; Question 291: What is the function of the command switchport trunk native ...; Question 292: Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server loc...; Question 293: Which two passwords must be supplied in order to connect by ...; Question 294: Refer to the exhibit. The two exhibited devices are the only...; Question 295: Which functionality does an SVI provide?...; Question 296: The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows "PVC ST...; Question 297: On a network of one department, there are four PCs connected...; Question 298: (Exhibit) A static map to the S-AMER location is required. W...; Question 299: Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to de...; Question 300: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network associate has conf...; Question 301: VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if...; Question 302: What are three features of the IPV6 protocol? (Choose three....; Question 303: What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)...; Question 304: Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?...; Question 305: Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type...; Question 306: What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF an...; Question 307: A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bund...; Question 308: When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that ...; Question 309: Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes DLCI 17? (Ex...; Question 310: DRAG DROP Drag the frame relay acronym on the left to match ...; Question 311: When a device learns multiple routes to a specific network, ...; Question 312: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the DHCP client states from the left...; Question 313: Instructions This item containes several questions that you ...; Question 314: How is provided master redundancy on a stacked switches?...; Question 315: Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?...; Question 316: What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network de...; Question 317: Which option is a valid IPv6 address?...; Question 318: Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated ...; Question 319: Refer to the exhibit. What set of commands was configured on...; Question 320: What is the effect of using the service password-encryption ...; Question 321: At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loop...; Question 322: Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?...; Question 323: When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router...; Question 324: The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was...; Question 325: What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a ...; Question 326: What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?...; Question 327: While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue, show int...; Question 328: Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface...; Question 329: What is the most efficient subnet mask for a point to point ...; Question 330: Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?...; Question 331: Which technology supports multiple dynamic secure connection...; Question 332: Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VL...; Question 333: Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two.)...; Question 334: Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?...; Question 335: Based on the network shown in the graphic. Which option cont...; Question 336: What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company ...; Question 337: Scenario (Exhibit) An administrator is trying to ping and te...; Question 338: Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?...; Question 339: What are two statement for SSH?...; Question 340: Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface l...; Question 341: What are three approaches that are used when migrating from ...; Question 342: Which IPv6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::9 to ...; Question 343: Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured the...; Question 344: Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigni...; Question 345: Which 3 feature are represented by A letter in AAA? (Choose ...; Question 346: Which technology can enable multiple VLANs to communicate wi...; Question 347: A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of phys...; Question 348: SIMULATION A corporation wants to add security to its networ...; Question 349: As a CCNA candidate, you must have a firm understanding of t...; Question 350: Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are t...; Question 351: When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is ...; Question 352: You are working in a data center environment and are assigne...; Question 353: What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfa...; Question 354: Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?...; Question 355: In which two situations should you use out-of-band managemen...; Question 356: Refer to the graphic. Host A is communicating with the serve...; Question 357: Which NTP type designates a router without an external refer...; Question 358: Which tunneling mechanism embeds an IPv4 address within an I...; Question 359: SIMULATION A network associate is configuring a router for t...; Question 360: Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across th...; Question 361: Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN tra...; Question 362: Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:407...; Question 363: Which two statements about IPv6 address 2002:ab10:beef::/48 ...; Question 364: A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet conne...; Question 365: Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?...; Question 366: When troubleshooting Ethernet connectivity issues, how can y...; Question 367: A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determ...; Question 368: A network administrator is trying to add a new router into a...; Question 369: Which value must the device send as its username when using ...; Question 370: What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?...; Question 371: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) You determine that Computer ...; Question 372: What can you change to select switch as root bridge?...; Question 373: Refer to the topology below and answer the following questio...; Question 374: Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination rep...; Question 375: Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cos...; Question 376: Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?...; Question 377: While troubleshooting a connectivity issue from a PC you obt...; Question 378: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the IEEE standard cable names from t...; Question 379: Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neig...; Question 380: Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? ...; Question 381: Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?...; Question 382: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the QoS features from the left onto ...; Question 383: Which definition of default route is true?...; Question 384: Which two statements describe the process identifier that is...; Question 385: For which two reasons might be you choose chassis aggregatio...; Question 386: DRAG DROP Drag the security features on the left to the spec...; Question 387: Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports....; Question 388: What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that ...; Question 389: Refer to the exhibit. The network is converged. After link-s...; Question 390: What does it take for BGP to establish connection? (Choose t...; Question 391: Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed devi...; Question 392: Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given ...; Question 393: Which two types of information are held in the mac address t...; Question 394: For which two protocols can PortFast alleviate potential hos...; Question 395: Which item represents the standard IP ACL?...; Question 396: DRAG DROP Match the terms on the left with the appropriate O...; Question 397: When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, i...; Question 398: Which two types of information are held in the MAC address t...; Question 399: What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?...; Question 400: Refer to the exhibit. Given the output from the show ip eigr...; Question 401: Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connectio...; Question 402: Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivi...; Question 403: Refer to the exhibit. When running OSPF, what would cause ro...; Question 404: Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is tru...; Question 405: Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port...; Question 406: The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for...; Question 407: Which feature must you enable to distribute vlans automatica...; Question 408: The access control list shown in the graphic has been applie...; Question 409: Scenario You are implementing EIGRP between the main office ...; Question 410: Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose t...; Question 411: A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 wit...; Question 412: Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP refe...; Question 413: Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all sw...; Question 414: Refer to the exhibit. Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unabl...; Question 415: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator requires eas...; Question 416: Which of the following are key characteristics of PPP? (Choo...; Question 417: Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run...; Question 418: Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addr...; Question 419: In which two circumstances are private IPv4 addresses approp...; Question 420: Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (C...; Question 421: Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?...; Question 422: What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?...; Question 423: DRAG DROP An interface has been configured with the access l...; Question 424: Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two.)...; Question 425: Based on the output below from SwitchB, which statement is t...; Question 426: An access list was written with the four statements shown in...; Question 427: Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true?...; Question 428: Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choos...; Question 429: Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router ...; Question 430: Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch i...; Question 431: Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PA...; Question 432: What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider ...; Question 433: What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? ...; Question 434: Which three elements must be used when you configure a route...; Question 435: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the BGP components from the left ont...; Question 436: What is the function of the command switchport trunk native ...; Question 437: Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk...; Question 438: Refer to the exhibit. The access list has been configured on...; Question 439: Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 port on...; Question 440: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the extended traceroute options from...; Question 441: A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 ...; Question 442: Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN...; Question 443: Which command can you enter to determine whether serial inte...; Question 444: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has created ...; Question 445: How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address...; Question 446: Where information about untrusted hosts are stored?...; Question 447: The following access list below was applied outbound on the ...; Question 448: Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in t...; Question 449: Which commands are required to properly configure a router t...; Question 450: Which command can you enter to troubleshoot the failure of a...; Question 451: Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?...; Question 452: What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?...; Question 453: Instructions This item containes several questions that you ...; Question 454: For which two reasons was RFC 1918 address space defining (C...; Question 455: Which type of secure MAC address must be configured manually...; Question 456: What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes...; Question 457: Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol...; Question 458: Which command can you enter to create a NAT pool of 6 addres...; Question 459: Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetw...; Question 460: Which technology allows a large number of private IP address...; Question 461: Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about in...; Question 462: As a network administrator, you have been instructed to prev...; Question 463: Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicas...; Question 464: Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 4 types of ...; Question 465: Which type of secure MAC address must be configured manually...; Question 466: Which three commands are required to enable NTP authenticati...; Question 467: DRAG DROP A user is unable to connect to the Internet. Based...; Question 468: Which three statements about DWDM are true? (Choose three)...; Question 469: Refer to the exhibit. The company uses EIGRP as the routing ...; Question 470: Which two authentic methods are compatible with MLPPP on a s...; Question 471: Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry ver...; Question 472: Which task must you perform to enable an IOS device to use D...; Question 473: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. If the devices produced the ...; Question 474: Which header field is new on IPv6?...; Question 475: Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidenti...; Question 476: Which of the port is not part of STP protocol?...; Question 477: VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if...; Question 478: Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs ov...; Question 479: Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the Syslog output...; Question 480: By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learn...; Question 481: How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit M...; Question 482: Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropr...; Question 483: Which command enables RSTP on a switch?...; Question 484: Which statement about recovering a password on a Cisco route...; Question 485: Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a ...; Question 486: Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IO...; Question 487: What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access l...; Question 488: Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choos...; Question 489: Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range ...; Question 490: Which address prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 addr...; Question 491: Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN co...; Question 492: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the values in a routing table from t...; Question 493: Which statement about routing protocols is true?...; Question 494: Which type of broadcast barely used in IPv4 which also exist...; Question 495: (Exhibit) If required, what password should be on the router...; Question 496: A network administrator wants to add a line to an access lis...; Question 497: If two OSPF neighbors have formed complete adjacency and are...; Question 498: Refer to the exhibit. What set of commands was configured on...; Question 499: Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT dev...; Question 500: What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the comm...; Question 501: Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true?...

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