200-125 Exam Dumps | Which two Qos tools can provide congestion management ?

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Question 385/390

Which two Qos tools can provide congestion management ?

A. CAR

B. CBWFQ

C. FRTS

D. PBR

E. PQ

Question List (390q): Question 1: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The exhibit is showing the t...; Question 2: Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?...; Question 3: Which functionality does an SVI provide?...; Question 4: Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN a...; Question 5: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator is c...; Question 6: Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address repre...; Question 7: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Switch port FastEthernet 0/2...; Question 8: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What two results would occur...; Question 9: DRAG DROP Drag and Drop the descriptions of IP protocol tran...; Question 10: Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across th...; Question 11: What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChan...; Question 12: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the steps to configure a basic GRE t...; Question 13: (Exhibit) refer to the exhibit , on R1, which routing protoc...; Question 14: Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs...; Question 15: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The Bigtime router is unable...; Question 16: Which command can you enter to set the default route for all...; Question 17: Under which circumstance should a network administrator impl...; Question 18: Which command can you enter to display the operational statu...; Question 19: After you configure theip dns spoofingcommand globally on a ...; Question 20: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided t...; Question 21: Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowi...; Question 22: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) According to the routing tab...; Question 23: Which VTP mode prevents you from making changes to vlans?...; Question 24: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Switch-1 needs to send data ...; 3 commentQuestion 25: DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is exchanging packets w...; Question 26: What two things will a router do when running a distance vec...; Question 27: CORRECT TEXT The following have already been configured on t...; Question 28: Which of the port is not part of STP protocol.?...; Question 29: Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which ...; Question 30: Which logging command can enable administrators to correlate...; Question 31: Which command enables RSTP on a switch?...; Question 32: What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing ...; Question 33: What feature you should use to analyse and monitor your traf...; Question 34: What are the two minimum required components of a DHCP bindi...; Question 35: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the values in a routing table from t...; Question 36: A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configur...; Question 37: Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? ...; Question 38: refer to the exhibit: (Exhibit) what is the metric for the r...; Question 39: Which three options are the major components of a network vi...; Question 40: Which statement about switch access ports is true?...; Question 41: For which two reasons might you choose chassis aggregation i...; Question 42: Which of the following is a security best practice?...; Question 43: If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway...; Question 44: which feature must you enable to distribute vlans automatica...; Question 45: Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement message...; Question 46: Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? ...; Question 47: which three options are fields in a basic ethernet data fram...; Question 48: Which function of the IP SLAs ICMP jitter operation can you ...; Question 49: Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range ...; Question 50: Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSR...; Question 51: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network shown in the dia...; Question 52: Which statement describes the effect of the exec-timeout 30 ...; Question 53: Which two characteristics are representatives of a link-stat...; Question 54: Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has connected t...; Question 55: Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is c...; Question 56: Which destination IP address can a host use to send one mess...; Question 57: In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices...; Question 58: Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cos...; Question 59: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator is a...; Question 60: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator cannot conn...; Question 61: (Exhibit) R1#show running-config interface Loopback0 descrip...; 1 commentQuestion 62: Which two criteria must be met to support the ICMP echo IP S...; Question 63: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) IF R1 sends traffic to 192.1...; Question 64: What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?...; Question 65: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What commands must be config...; Question 66: which add prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 address ...; Question 67: Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to ...; Question 68: How does a Cisco switch respond if you boot it without a val...; Question 69: In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:000...; Question 70: What is the subnet address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248?...; Question 71: Which HSRP Feature was new in HSRPv2 ?...; Question 72: How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit M...; Question 73: Which technology can provide security when connection multip...; Question 74: Which table displays the MAC addresses that are learned on a...; 1 commentQuestion 75: Under normal operations, Cisco recommends that you configure...; Question 76: Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a f...; 1 commentQuestion 77: Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?...; Question 78: Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure...; Question 79: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How should the FastEthernet0...; Question 80: A network administrator is trying to add a new router into a...; Question 81: Scenario: Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to...; Question 82: On which type of device is every port in the same collision ...; Question 83: Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (C...; Question 84: DRAG DROP Routing has been configured on the local router wi...; Question 85: Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mis...; Question 86: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which address and mask combi...; Question 87: In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked?...; Question 88: Which statement about using MPLS for WAN connectivity is tru...; Question 89: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A technician is troubleshoot...; Question 90: which two statements about MPLS are true ?...; Question 91: How many host addresses are available on the network 192.168...; Question 92: Which statement about the inside interface configuration in ...; Question 93: which value must you configure on a device beforee EIGRP For...; Question 94: Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT devi...; Question 95: What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF an...; Question 96: Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true ?...; Question 97: Which option is a valid IPv6 address?...; Question 98: If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and t...; 1 commentQuestion 99: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the STP features from the left onto ...; Question 100: You are implementing ElGRP between the main office and branc...; Question 101: Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?...; Question 102: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the reason that the ...; Question 103: After you configure a default route to the Internet on a rou...; Question 104: Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (C...; Question 105: Scenario: You work for a company that provides managed netwo...; Question 106: What is one benefit of PVST+?; Question 107: Which statement about spanning tree root bridge election is ...; Question 108: Which VLAN bridge priority value will make a switch as root ...; Question 109: What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?...; Question 110: Which two statements about firewalls are true ?...; Question 111: Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchrono...; 1 commentQuestion 112: For which two reasons was RFC 1918 address space define (Cho...; Question 113: In which CLI configuration mode can you configure the hostna...; 1 commentQuestion 114: Which command can you enter to re-enable Cisco Discovery Pro...; Question 115: Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?...; 2 commentQuestion 116: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use ...; Question 117: DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is sending packets to t...; Question 118: Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigni...; Question 119: What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?...; Question 120: Which three statements about VTP features are true? (Choose ...; Question 121: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Why has this switch not been...; Question 122: While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping fr...; Question 123: Which two steps must you perform on each device that is conf...; Question 124: Which command can you enter to configure an IPv6 floating st...; Question 125: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What statement is true of th...; Question 126: DRAG DROP Drag the cable type on the left to the purpose for...; Question 127: Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:407...; Question 128: An administrator is trying to ping and telnet from SwitchC t...; Question 129: What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Cho...; Question 130: Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD a...; Question 131: Which definition of default route is true?...; 1 commentQuestion 132: Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true?...; Question 133: How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to ho...; Question 134: which technology supports multiple dynamic secure connection...; Question 135: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Given the output shown from ...; Question 136: What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)...; Question 137: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which statement is true?...; Question 138: DRAG DROP Drag each definition on the left to the matching t...; Question 139: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the BGP terms from the left onto the...; Question 140: By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learn...; Question 141: Which function does the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation perform ...; Question 142: What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces o...; Question 143: Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN...; Question 144: Which two statements about ipv6 anycast addresses are true ?...; Question 145: Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true...; 1 commentQuestion 146: What are three broadband wireless technologies? (Choose thre...; Question 147: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which three statements corre...; Question 148: What levels will be trapped if the administrator executes th...; Question 149: Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?...; Question 150: The enable secret command is used to secure access to which ...; 1 commentQuestion 151: Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the in...; Question 152: (Exhibit) Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with ...; Question 153: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the route source codes in a routing ...; Question 154: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What can be determined about...; 3 commentQuestion 155: If you change the weight and distance parameters on a device...; Question 156: On which options are standard access lists based?...; Question 157: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The company uses EIGRP as th...; Question 158: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) After you apply the given co...; Question 159: Which statement about 6to4 tunneling is true?...; Question 160: Refer to the exhibit: (Exhibit) after you apply the give con...; Question 161: DRAG DROP Drag the Cisco default administrative distance to ...; Question 162: VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if...; Question 163: Which command can you enter to assign an interface to the de...; Question 164: Refer to the graphic. (Exhibit) Host A is communicating with...; Question 165: Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that ...; Question 166: Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server loc...; Question 167: Which two options are primary responsibilities of the APIC-E...; Question 168: Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?...; Question 169: which three options are benefits of using TACACS+ on a devic...; Question 170: Which statement describes the effect of the overload keyword...; Question 171: Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configur...; Question 172: Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a...; Question 173: What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:8...; Question 174: Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combin...; Question 175: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the PDUs from the left onto the corr...; Question 176: Router R1 has a static router that is configured to a destin...; Question 177: Which Ethernet interface command is present when you boot a ...; Question 178: An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for ...; Question 179: DRAG DROP Drag and drop each advantage of static or dynamic ...; Question 180: Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch i...; Question 181: Which command can you enter to verify that a BGP connection ...; Question 182: Which two security appliances will you use in a network? (Ch...; Question 183: Which three checks must you perform when troubleshooting EIG...; Question 184: Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs ov...; Question 185: Which effect of the passive-Interface command on R1 is true?...; Question 186: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a...; Question 187: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A technician has installed S...; 2 commentQuestion 188: Which two statements about fiber cable are true? (Choose two...; Question 189: Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via thei...; Question 190: An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 netwrok, wh...; Question 191: When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that ...; Question 192: Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IO...; Question 193: On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached ...; Question 194: What is true about Cisco Discovery Protocol ?...; Question 195: Which APIC-EM tool allows an administrator to verify ACLs th...; Question 196: What is the benefit of point-to-point leased line ?...; Question 197: A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a ...; Question 198: Which two statements about the extended traceroute command a...; Question 199: Which statement describes the effect of the copy run start c...; Question 200: Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP refe...; Question 201: Which two statements about LLDP are True ? (Choose Two)...; Question 202: Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?...; Question 203: Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropr...; Question 204: If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and t...; Question 205: For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physica...; Question 206: Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface...; Question 207: (Exhibit) Why is the Branch2 network 10.1 0.20.0/24 unable t...; Question 208: Which command can you enter in a network switch configuratio...; Question 209: A network administrator has configured access list 173 to pr...; Question 210: Exhibit: (Exhibit) After you apply the given configuration t...; Question 211: Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch ...; Question 212: Which statement about DTP is true?...; Question 213: A network interface port has collision detection and carrier...; Question 214: Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally locat...; Question 215: which functionality does split horizon provide ?...; Question 216: which six-byte field in a basic ethernet frame must be an in...; Question 217: Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a ...; Question 218: Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?...; Question 219: Which address block identifies all link-local address...; Question 220: In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standar...; Question 221: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network associate has conf...; Question 222: Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking ar...; Question 223: Which three characteristics are representative of a link-sta...; Question 224: Which three statements are true about the operation of a ful...; Question 225: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Based on the exhibited routi...; Question 226: How can you manually configure a switch so that it is select...; Question 227: Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (C...; Question 228: What are three factors a network administrator must consider...; Question 229: Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the cent...; Question 230: Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address ...; Question 231: Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?...; Question 232: Which two passwords must be supplied in order to connect by ...; Question 233: Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS im...; Question 234: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network administrator re...; Question 235: Refer to the exhibit, (Exhibit) you determine that Computer ...; Question 236: Which information is used to install the best route to a des...; Question 237: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the benefits of a cisco wireless Lan...; Question 238: Which three commands are required to enable NTP authenticati...; Question 239: Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has connected t...; Question 240: What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?...; Question 241: You are implementing ElGRP between the main office and branc...; Question 242: Which command can you enter to block HTTPS traffic from the ...; 1 commentQuestion 243: Which command can you enter to determine whether serial inte...; 1 commentQuestion 244: DRAG DROP Drag the cable type on the left to the purpose for...; Question 245: Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose...; Question 246: The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168...; Question 247: Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)...; Question 248: The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was...; Question 249: Scenario: You work for a company that provides managed netwo...; 1 commentQuestion 250: which two options are requirements for configuring ripv2 for...; Question 251: Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?...; Question 252: Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication o...; Question 253: Which 2 statements about extended traceroute command is true...; Question 254: Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connectio...; Question 255: Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?...; Question 256: which major ipv6 address type is supported in ipv4 but rarel...; Question 257: which command can you enter in a network switch configuratio...; Question 258: Which of the following statements describe the network shown...; Question 259: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator pings the d...; Question 260: Which two commands can you enter to verify that a configured...; Question 261: Which two command can you enter to display the current time ...; Question 262: which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 su...; Question 263: Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?...; Question 264: Which command must you enter to enable OSPFv2 in an IPv4 net...; 1 commentQuestion 265: Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an ...; Question 266: When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, ho...; Question 267: Which two options will help to solve the problem of a networ...; Question 268: When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is ...; Question 269: Which IPv6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::9 to ...; Question 270: Which command displays CPU utilization?...; Question 271: Which VLAN bridge priority value is assigned by the set span...; Question 272: Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FH...; Question 273: Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?...; Question 274: Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? ...; Question 275: Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one ...; Question 276: Under which two circumstances is network traffic most likely...; Question 277: Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by ...; Question 278: Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged...; Question 279: DRAG DROP A user is unable to connect to the Internet. Based...; Question 280: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the DHCP client states from the left...; Question 281: What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a ...; Question 282: What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)...; Question 283: Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?...; Question 284: A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a re...; Question 285: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A frame on VLAN 1 on switch ...; 1 commentQuestion 286: If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logg...; Question 287: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Hosts in network 192.168.2.0...; Question 288: What is a global command?; Question 289: DRAG DROP Drag and Drop the route source codes in a routing ...; Question 290: What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company ...; Question 291: On a live network, which two commands will verify the operat...; Question 292: Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?...; Question 293: Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicas...; Question 294: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Given the output for this co...; Question 295: When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must yo...; Question 296: When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from ...; 2 commentQuestion 297: Which two statements about stateful firewalls in an enterpri...; 1 commentQuestion 298: Which two statements about Cisco Discovery Protocol are true...; Question 299: Which two statements about configuring an EtherChannel on a ...; Question 300: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The two exhibited devices ar...; Question 301: A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 ...; Question 302: Which two authentication methods are compatible with MLPPP o...; Question 303: Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN i...; Question 304: Which command displays the number of times that an individua...; Question 305: Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? (Ch...; 1 commentQuestion 306: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the networking features or functions...; Question 307: Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?...; Question 308: What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address ...; Question 309: Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two )...; Question 310: Refer to the diagram. (Exhibit) All hosts have connectivity ...; Question 311: Refer to Exhibit: (Exhibit) How many broadcast domains are s...; 1 commentQuestion 312: How many primary IPv4 addresses can be assigned to an interf...; Question 313: Which statement about LLDP is true?...; Question 314: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which address range efficien...; Question 315: Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry ver...; Question 316: Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU...; Question 317: DRAG DROP Drag the security features on the left to the spec...; Question 318: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A new subnet with 60 hosts h...; Question 319: Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?...; 1 commentQuestion 320: Which two benefits can you get by stacking cisco switches ?(...; Question 321: Which command shows your active Telnet connections?...; 1 commentQuestion 322: Which two functions can be performed by a local DNS server? ...; Question 323: Which three features are represented by the letter A in AAA ...; Question 324: Which two steps must you perform to enable router-on-a-stick...; Question 325:; Question 326: Which VTP mode prevents you from making changes to VLANs?...; Question 327: Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three....; Question 328: Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a ...; Question 329: Which statement about RADIUS security is true?...; Question 330: You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will ...; Question 331: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the switching concepts from the left...; Question 332: which two types of information are held in the mac address t...; Question 333: What are two advantages of dynamic routing? (Choose two)...; Question 334: Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to a spec...; Question 335: What are the alert messages generated by SNMP agents called?...; Question 336: Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?...; Question 337: How can you disable DTP on a switch port?...; Question 338: ***ip dhcp pool my pool****** ***network 192.168.10.0/27*** ...; Question 339: Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that i...; Question 340: A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing sch...; Question 341: which WAN topology provides a direct conntection from each s...; Question 342: Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image?...; Question 343: Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BG...; Question 344: What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 us...; Question 345: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two statements are tru...; Question 346: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) In this VLSM addressing sche...; Question 347: Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent D...; Question 348: Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to all...; Question 349: which command can you enter to create a NAT Pool of 6 addres...; Question 350: Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in t...; Question 351: CORRECT TEXT Scenario: You work as Junior Network Engineer f...; Question 352: DRAG DROP DRAG DROP (Exhibit); Question 353: Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and a...; 1 commentQuestion 354: How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address?...; Question 355: Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports....; Question 356: What is the function of the command switchport trunk native ...; Question 357: (Exhibit) R1#show running-config interface Loopback0 descrip...; Question 358: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If the devices produced the ...; Question 359: Which option is a valid hostname for a switch?...; Question 360: Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is des...; Question 361: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) All devices attached to the ...; Question 362: Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on...; Question 363: Which purpose of the network command in OSPF configuration m...; Question 364: How many bits represent the network ID in iPv6?...; Question 365: What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose ...; Question 366: Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port...; 1 commentQuestion 367: You enter the show ipv6 route command on an OSPF device and ...; Question 368: Which characteristics are representatives of a link-state ro...; Question 369: Which feature is configured by setting a variance that is at...; Question 370: RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running...; Question 371: Which two EtherChannel PAgP modes can you configure? (Choose...; Question 372: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. You have determined that com...; Question 373: DRAG DROP Drag each category on the left to its correspondin...; Question 374: You are working in a data center environment and are assigne...; Question 375: Which action can change the order of entries in a named acce...; Question 376: A BPDU guard is configured on an interface that has PortFast...; Question 377: A router has learned three possible routes that could be use...; Question 378: When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses sho...; Question 379: Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a h...; 1 commentQuestion 380: Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 pub...; Question 381: When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing...; 1 commentQuestion 382: Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to de...; Question 383: Which tow options describe benefits of aggregated chassis te...; Question 384: Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols...; Question 385: Which two Qos tools can provide congestion management ?...; Question 386: Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can e...; Question 387: Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assig...; Question 388: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the l...; Question 389: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The speed of all serial link...; Question 390: Which configuration enables OSPF for network 192.168.1.0/24?...

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