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Question 129/390
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: B,C,D
These are the different types of trunk modes:
* ON: This mode puts the port into permanent trunk mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link. The port becomes a trunk port even if the adjacent port does not agree to the change.
* OFF: This mode puts the port into permanent non-trunk mode and negotiates to convert the link into a non-trunk link. The port becomes a non-trunk port even if the adjacent port does not agree to the change.
* Desirable: This mode causes the port to actively attempt to convert the link into a trunk link. The port becomes a trunk port if the adjacent port is set to on, desirable, or auto mode.
* Auto: This mode enables the port to convert the link into a trunk link. The port becomes a trunk port if the adjacent port is set to on or desirable mode. This is the default mode for Fast and Gigabit Ethernet ports.
* Nonegotiate: This mode puts the port into permanent trunk mode, but does not allow the port to generate Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) frames. The adjacent port must be configured manually as a trunk port to establish a trunk link.
* ON: This mode puts the port into permanent trunk mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link. The port becomes a trunk port even if the adjacent port does not agree to the change.
* OFF: This mode puts the port into permanent non-trunk mode and negotiates to convert the link into a non-trunk link. The port becomes a non-trunk port even if the adjacent port does not agree to the change.
* Desirable: This mode causes the port to actively attempt to convert the link into a trunk link. The port becomes a trunk port if the adjacent port is set to on, desirable, or auto mode.
* Auto: This mode enables the port to convert the link into a trunk link. The port becomes a trunk port if the adjacent port is set to on or desirable mode. This is the default mode for Fast and Gigabit Ethernet ports.
* Nonegotiate: This mode puts the port into permanent trunk mode, but does not allow the port to generate Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) frames. The adjacent port must be configured manually as a trunk port to establish a trunk link.
- Question List (390q)
- Question 1: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The exhibit is showing the t...
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- Question 4: Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN a...
- Question 5: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator is c...
- Question 6: Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address repre...
- Question 7: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Switch port FastEthernet 0/2...
- Question 8: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What two results would occur...
- Question 9: DRAG DROP Drag and Drop the descriptions of IP protocol tran...
- Question 10: Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across th...
- Question 11: What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChan...
- Question 12: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the steps to configure a basic GRE t...
- Question 13: (Exhibit) refer to the exhibit , on R1, which routing protoc...
- Question 14: Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs...
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- Question 16: Which command can you enter to set the default route for all...
- Question 17: Under which circumstance should a network administrator impl...
- Question 18: Which command can you enter to display the operational statu...
- Question 19: After you configure theip dns spoofingcommand globally on a ...
- Question 20: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided t...
- Question 21: Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowi...
- Question 22: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) According to the routing tab...
- Question 23: Which VTP mode prevents you from making changes to vlans?...
- Question 24: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Switch-1 needs to send data ...
- 3 commentQuestion 25: DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is exchanging packets w...
- Question 26: What two things will a router do when running a distance vec...
- Question 27: CORRECT TEXT The following have already been configured on t...
- Question 28: Which of the port is not part of STP protocol.?...
- Question 29: Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which ...
- Question 30: Which logging command can enable administrators to correlate...
- Question 31: Which command enables RSTP on a switch?...
- Question 32: What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing ...
- Question 33: What feature you should use to analyse and monitor your traf...
- Question 34: What are the two minimum required components of a DHCP bindi...
- Question 35: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the values in a routing table from t...
- Question 36: A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configur...
- Question 37: Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? ...
- Question 38: refer to the exhibit: (Exhibit) what is the metric for the r...
- Question 39: Which three options are the major components of a network vi...
- Question 40: Which statement about switch access ports is true?...
- Question 41: For which two reasons might you choose chassis aggregation i...
- Question 42: Which of the following is a security best practice?...
- Question 43: If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway...
- Question 44: which feature must you enable to distribute vlans automatica...
- Question 45: Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement message...
- Question 46: Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? ...
- Question 47: which three options are fields in a basic ethernet data fram...
- Question 48: Which function of the IP SLAs ICMP jitter operation can you ...
- Question 49: Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range ...
- Question 50: Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSR...
- Question 51: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network shown in the dia...
- Question 52: Which statement describes the effect of the exec-timeout 30 ...
- Question 53: Which two characteristics are representatives of a link-stat...
- Question 54: Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has connected t...
- Question 55: Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is c...
- Question 56: Which destination IP address can a host use to send one mess...
- Question 57: In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices...
- Question 58: Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cos...
- Question 59: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator is a...
- Question 60: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator cannot conn...
- Question 61: (Exhibit) R1#show running-config interface Loopback0 descrip...
- 1 commentQuestion 62: Which two criteria must be met to support the ICMP echo IP S...
- Question 63: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) IF R1 sends traffic to 192.1...
- Question 64: What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?...
- Question 65: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What commands must be config...
- Question 66: which add prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 address ...
- Question 67: Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to ...
- Question 68: How does a Cisco switch respond if you boot it without a val...
- Question 69: In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:000...
- Question 70: What is the subnet address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248?...
- Question 71: Which HSRP Feature was new in HSRPv2 ?...
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- 1 commentQuestion 75: Under normal operations, Cisco recommends that you configure...
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- 1 commentQuestion 77: Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?...
- Question 78: Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure...
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- Question 90: which two statements about MPLS are true ?...
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- Question 94: Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT devi...
- Question 95: What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF an...
- Question 96: Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true ?...
- Question 97: Which option is a valid IPv6 address?...
- Question 98: If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and t...
- 1 commentQuestion 99: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the STP features from the left onto ...
- Question 100: You are implementing ElGRP between the main office and branc...
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- 2 commentQuestion 116: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use ...
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- Question 118: Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigni...
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- Question 121: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Why has this switch not been...
- Question 122: While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping fr...
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- Question 125: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What statement is true of th...
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- Question 127: Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:407...
- Question 128: An administrator is trying to ping and telnet from SwitchC t...
- Question 129: What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Cho...
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- Question 131: Which definition of default route is true?...
- 1 commentQuestion 132: Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true?...
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- Question 134: which technology supports multiple dynamic secure connection...
- Question 135: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Given the output shown from ...
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- 1 commentQuestion 146: What are three broadband wireless technologies? (Choose thre...
- Question 147: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which three statements corre...
- Question 148: What levels will be trapped if the administrator executes th...
- Question 149: Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?...
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- 1 commentQuestion 151: Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the in...
- Question 152: (Exhibit) Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with ...
- Question 153: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the route source codes in a routing ...
- Question 154: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What can be determined about...
- 3 commentQuestion 155: If you change the weight and distance parameters on a device...
- Question 156: On which options are standard access lists based?...
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- Question 158: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) After you apply the given co...
- Question 159: Which statement about 6to4 tunneling is true?...
- Question 160: Refer to the exhibit: (Exhibit) after you apply the give con...
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- Question 169: which three options are benefits of using TACACS+ on a devic...
- Question 170: Which statement describes the effect of the overload keyword...
- Question 171: Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configur...
- Question 172: Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a...
- Question 173: What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:8...
- Question 174: Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combin...
- Question 175: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the PDUs from the left onto the corr...
- Question 176: Router R1 has a static router that is configured to a destin...
- Question 177: Which Ethernet interface command is present when you boot a ...
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- Question 185: Which effect of the passive-Interface command on R1 is true?...
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- Question 198: Which two statements about the extended traceroute command a...
- Question 199: Which statement describes the effect of the copy run start c...
- Question 200: Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP refe...
- Question 201: Which two statements about LLDP are True ? (Choose Two)...
- Question 202: Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?...
- Question 203: Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropr...
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- Question 215: which functionality does split horizon provide ?...
- Question 216: which six-byte field in a basic ethernet frame must be an in...
- Question 217: Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a ...
- Question 218: Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?...
- Question 219: Which address block identifies all link-local address...
- Question 220: In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standar...
- Question 221: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network associate has conf...
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- Question 223: Which three characteristics are representative of a link-sta...
- Question 224: Which three statements are true about the operation of a ful...
- Question 225: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Based on the exhibited routi...
- Question 226: How can you manually configure a switch so that it is select...
- Question 227: Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (C...
- Question 228: What are three factors a network administrator must consider...
- Question 229: Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the cent...
- Question 230: Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address ...
- Question 231: Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?...
- Question 232: Which two passwords must be supplied in order to connect by ...
- Question 233: Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS im...
- Question 234: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network administrator re...
- Question 235: Refer to the exhibit, (Exhibit) you determine that Computer ...
- Question 236: Which information is used to install the best route to a des...
- Question 237: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the benefits of a cisco wireless Lan...
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- 1 commentQuestion 243: Which command can you enter to determine whether serial inte...
- 1 commentQuestion 244: DRAG DROP Drag the cable type on the left to the purpose for...
- Question 245: Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose...
- Question 246: The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168...
- Question 247: Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)...
- Question 248: The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was...
- Question 249: Scenario: You work for a company that provides managed netwo...
- 1 commentQuestion 250: which two options are requirements for configuring ripv2 for...
- Question 251: Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?...
- Question 252: Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication o...
- Question 253: Which 2 statements about extended traceroute command is true...
- Question 254: Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connectio...
- Question 255: Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?...
- Question 256: which major ipv6 address type is supported in ipv4 but rarel...
- Question 257: which command can you enter in a network switch configuratio...
- Question 258: Which of the following statements describe the network shown...
- Question 259: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator pings the d...
- Question 260: Which two commands can you enter to verify that a configured...
- Question 261: Which two command can you enter to display the current time ...
- Question 262: which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 su...
- Question 263: Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?...
- Question 264: Which command must you enter to enable OSPFv2 in an IPv4 net...
- 1 commentQuestion 265: Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an ...
- Question 266: When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, ho...
- Question 267: Which two options will help to solve the problem of a networ...
- Question 268: When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is ...
- Question 269: Which IPv6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::9 to ...
- Question 270: Which command displays CPU utilization?...
- Question 271: Which VLAN bridge priority value is assigned by the set span...
- Question 272: Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FH...
- Question 273: Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?...
- Question 274: Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? ...
- Question 275: Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one ...
- Question 276: Under which two circumstances is network traffic most likely...
- Question 277: Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by ...
- Question 278: Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged...
- Question 279: DRAG DROP A user is unable to connect to the Internet. Based...
- Question 280: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the DHCP client states from the left...
- Question 281: What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a ...
- Question 282: What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)...
- Question 283: Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?...
- Question 284: A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a re...
- Question 285: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A frame on VLAN 1 on switch ...
- 1 commentQuestion 286: If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logg...
- Question 287: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Hosts in network 192.168.2.0...
- Question 288: What is a global command?
- Question 289: DRAG DROP Drag and Drop the route source codes in a routing ...
- Question 290: What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company ...
- Question 291: On a live network, which two commands will verify the operat...
- Question 292: Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?...
- Question 293: Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicas...
- Question 294: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Given the output for this co...
- Question 295: When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must yo...
- Question 296: When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from ...
- 2 commentQuestion 297: Which two statements about stateful firewalls in an enterpri...
- 1 commentQuestion 298: Which two statements about Cisco Discovery Protocol are true...
- Question 299: Which two statements about configuring an EtherChannel on a ...
- Question 300: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The two exhibited devices ar...
- Question 301: A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 ...
- Question 302: Which two authentication methods are compatible with MLPPP o...
- Question 303: Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN i...
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- 1 commentQuestion 306: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the networking features or functions...
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- Question 309: Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two )...
- Question 310: Refer to the diagram. (Exhibit) All hosts have connectivity ...
- Question 311: Refer to Exhibit: (Exhibit) How many broadcast domains are s...
- 1 commentQuestion 312: How many primary IPv4 addresses can be assigned to an interf...
- Question 313: Which statement about LLDP is true?...
- Question 314: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which address range efficien...
- Question 315: Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry ver...
- Question 316: Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU...
- Question 317: DRAG DROP Drag the security features on the left to the spec...
- Question 318: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A new subnet with 60 hosts h...
- Question 319: Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?...
- 1 commentQuestion 320: Which two benefits can you get by stacking cisco switches ?(...
- Question 321: Which command shows your active Telnet connections?...
- 1 commentQuestion 322: Which two functions can be performed by a local DNS server? ...
- Question 323: Which three features are represented by the letter A in AAA ...
- Question 324: Which two steps must you perform to enable router-on-a-stick...
- Question 325:
- Question 326: Which VTP mode prevents you from making changes to VLANs?...
- Question 327: Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three....
- Question 328: Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a ...
- Question 329: Which statement about RADIUS security is true?...
- Question 330: You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will ...
- Question 331: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the switching concepts from the left...
- Question 332: which two types of information are held in the mac address t...
- Question 333: What are two advantages of dynamic routing? (Choose two)...
- Question 334: Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to a spec...
- Question 335: What are the alert messages generated by SNMP agents called?...
- Question 336: Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?...
- Question 337: How can you disable DTP on a switch port?...
- Question 338: ***ip dhcp pool my pool****** ***network 192.168.10.0/27*** ...
- Question 339: Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that i...
- Question 340: A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing sch...
- Question 341: which WAN topology provides a direct conntection from each s...
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- Question 343: Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BG...
- Question 344: What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 us...
- Question 345: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two statements are tru...
- Question 346: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) In this VLSM addressing sche...
- Question 347: Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent D...
- Question 348: Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to all...
- Question 349: which command can you enter to create a NAT Pool of 6 addres...
- Question 350: Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in t...
- Question 351: CORRECT TEXT Scenario: You work as Junior Network Engineer f...
- Question 352: DRAG DROP DRAG DROP (Exhibit)
- Question 353: Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and a...
- 1 commentQuestion 354: How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address?...
- Question 355: Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports....
- Question 356: What is the function of the command switchport trunk native ...
- Question 357: (Exhibit) R1#show running-config interface Loopback0 descrip...
- Question 358: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If the devices produced the ...
- Question 359: Which option is a valid hostname for a switch?...
- Question 360: Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is des...
- Question 361: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) All devices attached to the ...
- Question 362: Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on...
- Question 363: Which purpose of the network command in OSPF configuration m...
- Question 364: How many bits represent the network ID in iPv6?...
- Question 365: What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose ...
- Question 366: Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port...
- 1 commentQuestion 367: You enter the show ipv6 route command on an OSPF device and ...
- Question 368: Which characteristics are representatives of a link-state ro...
- Question 369: Which feature is configured by setting a variance that is at...
- Question 370: RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running...
- Question 371: Which two EtherChannel PAgP modes can you configure? (Choose...
- Question 372: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. You have determined that com...
- Question 373: DRAG DROP Drag each category on the left to its correspondin...
- Question 374: You are working in a data center environment and are assigne...
- Question 375: Which action can change the order of entries in a named acce...
- Question 376: A BPDU guard is configured on an interface that has PortFast...
- Question 377: A router has learned three possible routes that could be use...
- Question 378: When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses sho...
- Question 379: Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a h...
- 1 commentQuestion 380: Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 pub...
- Question 381: When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing...
- 1 commentQuestion 382: Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to de...
- Question 383: Which tow options describe benefits of aggregated chassis te...
- Question 384: Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols...
- Question 385: Which two Qos tools can provide congestion management ?...
- Question 386: Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can e...
- Question 387: Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assig...
- Question 388: DRAG DROP Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the l...
- Question 389: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The speed of all serial link...
- Question 390: Which configuration enables OSPF for network 192.168.1.0/24?...
