CISSP Exam Dumps | Given a file containing ordered number, i.e. "123456789," match each of the following redundant Array

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Question 340/602

Given a file containing ordered number, i.e. "123456789," match each of the following redundant Array of independent Disks (RAID) levels to the corresponding visual representation visual representation. Note: P() = parity.
Drag each level to the appropriate place on the diagram.

Correct Answer:

Explanation:
Drag each level to the appropriate place on the diagram.
RAID 1 -> Top left RAID 0 -> Top right RAID 5 -> Bottom left RAID 10 -> Bottom right Comprehensive Explanation: The correct answer is to drag each level to the appropriate place on the diagram as shown below:
![RAID levels]
The rationale for the answer is based on the definition and characteristics of each RAID level and the given file containing ordered numbers. RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks, and it is a technology that combines multiple physical disks into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or capacity. RAID levels are the different ways of organizing and distributing data across the disks, using techniques such as mirroring, striping, or parity. Mirroring means creating an exact copy of the data on another disk, which provides fault tolerance and redundancy. Striping means dividing the data into blocks and spreading them across multiple disks, which provides speed and performance. Parity means calculating and storing an extra bit of information that can be used to reconstruct the data in case of a disk failure, which provides error correction and fault tolerance.
* RAID 1 is a RAID level that uses mirroring to create an exact copy of the data on another disk. RAID 1 requires at least two disks, and it provides high reliability and availability, as the data can be accessed from either disk if one fails. However, RAID 1 does not provide any performance improvement, and it has a high storage overhead, as it duplicates the data. In the diagram, RAID 1 is represented by two disks with identical data (123456789).
* RAID 0 is a RAID level that uses striping to divide the data into blocks and spread them across multiple disks. RAID 0 requires at least two disks, and it provides high performance and speed, as the data can be read or written in parallel from multiple disks. However, RAID 0 does not provide any fault tolerance or redundancy, and it has a high risk of data loss, as the failure of any disk will result in the loss of the entire data. In the diagram, RAID 0 is represented by two disks with data split between them (123 and
456789).
* RAID 5 is a RAID level that uses striping with parity to distribute the data and the parity information across multiple disks. RAID 5 requires at least three disks, and it provides a balance of performance, reliability, and capacity, as the data can be read or written in parallel from multiple disks, and the data can be recovered from the parity information if one disk fails. However, RAID 5 has a performance penalty for write operations, as it requires extra calculations and disk operations to update the parity information. In the diagram, RAID 5 is represented by three disks where data is striped across two disks (123 and 789), and the third disk contains parity information (P(456+789) and P(123+456)).
* RAID 10 is a RAID level that combines RAID 1 and RAID 0, meaning that it uses mirroring and striping to create a nested array of disks. RAID 10 requires at least four disks, and it provides high performance, reliability, and availability, as the data can be read or written in parallel from multiple mirrored disks, and the data can be accessed from either disk if one fails. However, RAID 10 has a high storage overhead, as it duplicates the data, and it requires more disks and controllers to implement. In the diagram, RAID 10 is represented by four disks combining both mirroring and striping techniques (123 and 123, 456789 and 456789).
References:
* [RAID]
* [RAID Levels Explained]
* [RAID 0, RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID 10 Explained with Diagrams]

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An or...; Question 424: What is the MOST appropriate hierarchy of documents when imp...; Question 425: Who in the organization is accountable for classification of...; Question 426: When dealing with shared, privilaged accounts, especially th...; Question 427: During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO dis...; Question 428: If a content management system (CSM) is implemented, which o...; Question 429: What is the process of removing sensitive data from a system...; Question 430: Access to which of the following is required to validate web...; Question 431: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of a firm which ...; Question 432: Which of the following attacks is dependent upon the comprom...; Question 433: Computer forensics require which of the following are MAIN s...; Question 434: In order for a security policy to be effective within an org...; Question 435: An Information Technology (IT) professional attends a cybers...; Question 436: What is the BEST way to establish identity over the internet...; Question 437: In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the...; Question 438: Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities o...; Question 439: Which of the following is a common measure within a Local Ar...; Question 440: Which of the following is the BEST way to protect an organiz...; Question 441: The PRIMARY characteristic of a Distributed Denial of Servic...; Question 442: Which of the following is an indicator that a company's new ...; Question 443: An internal Service Level Agreement (SLA) covering security ...; Question 444: A mobile device application that restricts the storage of us...; Question 445: Refer to the information below to answer the question. Durin...; Question 446: Which of the following BEST represents the concept of least ...; Question 447: What is the PRIMARY purpose for an organization to conduct a...; Question 448: Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) M...; Question 449: Which of the following would an attacker BEST be able to acc...; Question 450: A cybersecurity engineer has been tasked to research and imp...; Question 451: Who would be the BEST person to approve an organizations inf...; Question 452: Which of the following is a limitation of the Common Vulnera...; Question 453: Which of the following are required components for implement...; Question 454: Which of the following is the top barrier for companies to a...; Question 455: Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when r...; Question 456: A manager identified two conflicting sensitive user function...; Question 457: When reviewing the security logs, the password shown for an ...; Question 458: "Stateful" differs from "Static" packet filtering firewalls ...; Question 459: Which of the following is the BEST method to reduce the effe...; Question 460: In addition to life, protection of which of the following el...; Question 461: Which of the following is the BEST defense against password ...; Question 462: A user's credential for an application is stored in a relati...; Question 463: Secure coding can be developed by applying which one of the ...; Question 464: Which of the following is established to collect information...; Question 465: An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is based on the general ...; Question 466: A security manager has noticed an inconsistent application o...; Question 467: An attack utilizing social engineering and a malicious Unifo...; Question 468: Which of the following is a common characteristic of privacy...; Question 469: Which programming methodology allows a programmer to use pre...; Question 470: A security professional has been assigned to assess a web ap...; Question 471: Which of the following is an example of a vulnerability of f...; Question 472: Which of the following MUST a security professional do in or...; Question 473: In which of the following programs is it MOST important to i...; Question 474: Which of the following is used to detect steganography?...; Question 475: Which of the following BEST describes a rogue Access Point (...; Question 476: Which of the following roles is responsible for ensuring tha...; Question 477: Which of the following BEST describes why software assurance...; Question 478: Which of the following is an authentication protocol in whic...; Question 479: An attacker has intruded into the source code management sys...; Question 480: A user sends an e-mail request asking for read-only access t...; Question 481: A user downloads a file from the Internet, then applies the ...; Question 482: What type of database attack would allow a customer service ...; Question 483: Which of the following actions should be taken by a security...; Question 484: Which of the following mechanisms will BEST prevent a Cross-...; Question 485: An information security professional is reviewing user acces...; Question 486: When designing a vulnerability test, which one of the follow...; Question 487: According to the Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI...; Question 488: Information Security Continuous Monitoring (1SCM) is defined...; Question 489: The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of an organiza...; Question 490: What is the PRIMARY reason for ethics awareness and related ...; Question 491: Which is the BEST control to meet the Statement on Standards...; Question 492: Which change management role is responsible for the overall ...; Question 493: A corporation does not have a formal data destruction policy...; Question 494: Which of the following vulnerability assessment activities B...; Question 495: Which of the following is a common feature of an Identity as...; Question 496: When developing the entitlement review process, which of the...; Question 497: What is the term used to define where data is geographically...; Question 498: A company wants to store data related to users on an offsite...; Question 499: In Identity Management (IdM), when is the verification stage...; Question 500: A vehicle of a private courier company that transports backu...; Question 501: An audit of an application reveals that the current configur...; Question 502: Which of the following practices provides the development te...; Question 503: How should an organization determine the priority of its rem...; Question 504: Which of the following processes has the PRIMARY purpose of ...; Question 505: Which of the following is of GREATEST assistance to auditors...; Question 506: Which of the following is the MOST common use of the Online ...; Question 507: Which of the following contributes MOST to the effectiveness...; Question 508: A Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP...; Question 509: The BEST way to check for good security programming practice...; Question 510: A software developer wishes to write code that will execute ...; Question 511: What is the benefit of an operating system (OS) feature that...; Question 512: Which one of the following would cause an immediate review a...; Question 513: An employee receives a promotion that entities them to acces...; Question 514: While dealing with the consequences of a security incident, ...; Question 515: The implementation of which features of an identity manageme...; Question 516: What is the BEST location in a network to place Virtual Priv...; Question 517: Which of the following open source software issues pose the ...; Question 518: Individuals have been identified and determined as having a ...; Question 519: At which phase of the software assurance life cycle should r...; Question 520: For an organization considering two-factor authentication fo...; Question 521: Refer to the information below to answer the question. In a ...; Question 522: To prevent inadvertent disclosure of restricted information,...; Question 523: Which inherent password weakness does a One Time Password (O...; Question 524: Which of the following is the final phase of the identity an...; Question 525: A post-implementation review has identified that the Voice O...; Question 526: Which of the following could elicit a Denial of Service (DoS...; Question 527: To minimize the vulnerabilities of a web-based application, ...; Question 528: A system has been scanned for vulnerabilities and has been f...; Question 529: Which of the following is a common term for log reviews, syn...; Question 530: What do you think is the best way to secure a camera?...; Question 531: When developing a business case for updating a security prog...; Question 532: Which of the following is the MAIN reason that system re-cer...; Question 533: Which of the following is the BEST statement for a professio...; Question 534: Which of the following actions should be performed when impl...; Question 535: Which of the following uses the destination IP address to fo...; Question 536: For the purpose of classification, which of the following is...; Question 537: What is maintained by using write blocking devices whan fore...; Question 538: What does secure authentication with logging provide?...; Question 539: When conducting a security assessment of access controls , W...; Question 540: Refer to the information below to answer the question. A new...; Question 541: It is MOST important to perform which of the following to mi...; Question 542: Logical access control programs are MOST effective when they...; Question 543: A subscription service which provides power, climate control...; Question 544: A company is planning to implement a private cloud infrastru...; Question 545: Which of the following services can be deployed via a cloud ...; Question 546: The configuration management and control task of the certifi...; Question 547: Directive controls are a form of change management policy an...; Question 548: Which of the following is the MOST critical success factor i...; Question 549: What is the MOST effective method for gaining unauthorized a...; Question 550: Refer to the information below to answer the question. Durin...; Question 551: The application of a security patch to a product previously ...; Question 552: Which one of the following is the MOST important in designin...; Question 553: What is the BEST approach to addressing security issues in l...; 1 commentQuestion 554: Which of the following is part of a Trusted Platform Module ...; Question 555: The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has decided that as part...; Question 556: Which of the following questions can be answered using user ...; Question 557: Refer to the information below to answer the question. A lar...; Question 558: Which of the following is the MAIN difference between a netw...; Question 559: Which of the following findings would MOST likely indicate a...; Question 560: Which of the following media is least problematic with data ...; Question 561: At the destination host, which of the following OSI model la...; Question 562: Refer to the information below to answer the question. An or...; Question 563: Before implementing an internet-facing router, a network adm...; Question 564: Which of the following is the best practice for testing a Bu...; Question 565: What part of an organization's strategic risk assessment MOS...; Question 566: How does a Host Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) iden...; Question 567: Which of the following methods MOST efficiently manages user...; Question 568: A security practitioner is tasked with securing the organiza...; Question 569: The security organization is looking for a solution that cou...; Question 570: Which of the following authorization standards is built to h...; 1 commentQuestion 571: Which of the following is an important design feature for th...; Question 572: a large organization uses biometrics to allow access to its ...; Question 573: From an asset security perspective, what is the BEST counter...; Question 574: Which of the following value comparisons MOST accurately ref...; Question 575: Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 (EAP-MD5...; Question 576: Which of the following MUST be in place to recognize a syste...; Question 577: Which of the following phases involves researching a target'...; Question 578: Which of the following is considered a secure coding practic...; Question 579: What is the FIRST step required in establishing a records re...; Question 580: Which of the following is true of Service Organization Contr...; Question 581: Which of the following disaster recovery test plans will be ...; Question 582: What is the MAIN purpose of conducting a business impact ana...; Question 583: Which security action should be taken FIRST when computer pe...; Question 584: A Java program is being developed to read a file from comput...; Question 585: Which of the following attributes could be used to describe ...; Question 586: Which of the following are effective countermeasures against...; Question 587: Which of the following describes the order in which a digita...; Question 588: An organization is trying to secure instant messaging (IM) c...; Question 589: What type of test assesses a Disaster Recovery (DR) plan usi...; Question 590: Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure t...; Question 591: Which of the following is the MOST effective method of mitig...; Question 592: In Disaster Recovery (DR) and business continuity training, ...; Question 593: Which of the following is an effective method for avoiding m...; Question 594: The threat modeling identifies a man-in-the-middle (MITM) ex...; Question 595: Which of the following MUST the administrator of a security ...; Question 596: A hospital has allowed virtual private networking (VPN) acce...; Question 597: When determining data and information asset handling, regard...; Question 598: The FIRST step in building a firewall is to...; Question 599: The security team plans on using automated account reconcili...; Question 600: Which of the following types of security testing is the MOST...; Question 601: Within the company, desktop clients receive Internet Protoco...; Question 602: Which of the following assessment metrics is BEST used to un...

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