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Exam Code:	200-301
Exam Name:	Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam
Certification Provider:	Cisco
Free Question Number:	433
Version:	v2024-05-07
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# of views:	793
# of Questions views:	43451
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Exam Question List: 1 commentQuestion 1: In software defined architectures, which plane is distribute...; Question 2: Why would a network administrator choose to implement automa...; Question 3: Which security program element involves installing badge rea...; Question 4: How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliabilit...; Question 5: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 6: Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the config...; Question 7: Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH...; Question 8: Which (unction generally performed by a traditional network ...; Question 9: Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the com...; Question 10: Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers im...; Question 11: OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSP...; Question 12: Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network w...; Question 13: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If the network environment i...; Question 14: What provides centralized control of authentication and roam...; Question 15: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The nip server 192.168.0.3 c...; Question 16: What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)...; Question 17: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 18: Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols fr...; Question 19: Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?...; Question 20: Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the l...; Question 21: How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local...; Question 22: What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?...; Question 23: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer is updati...; Question 24: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The following must be consid...; Question 25: When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architect...; Question 26: A router has two static routes to the same destination netwo...; Question 27: Refer to the exhibit. A multivendor network exists and the c...; Question 28: Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC?...; Question 29: What is a purpose of traffic shaping?...; Question 30: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator must turn o...; Question 31: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer is in the...; Question 32: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Drag a...; Question 33: Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?...; Question 34: Refer to the exhibit. Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 su...; Question 35: A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface ...; Question 36: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If OSPF is running on this n...; Question 37: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must conf...; Question 38: Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto thei...; Question 39: Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (...; Question 40: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) IP connectivity and OSPF are...; Question 41: What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?...; Question 42: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) After the election process w...; Question 43: Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early...; Question 44: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An enginee...; Question 45: What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?...; Question 46: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An eng...; Question 47: Which is a fact related to FTP?...; Question 48: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) The loopback1 interface of the A...; Question 49: R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing prot...; Question 50: Drag and drop the configuration management terms from the le...; Question 51: Drag and drop the device behaviors from the left onto the ma...; Question 52: What Is a syslog facility?; Question 53: Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traf...; Question 54: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A packet sourced from 172.18...; Question 55: What is the primary different between AAA authentication and...; Question 56: Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to p...; Question 57: Which two values or settings must be entered when configurin...; Question 58: Which type of security program is violated when a group of e...; Question 59: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Switch A is newly configured...; Question 60: A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers ...; Question 61: An engineer is configuring data and voice services to pass t...; Question 62: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is updating the ...; Question 63: Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-ban...; Question 64: What is the role of the root port in a switched network?...; Question 65: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator has ...; Question 66: Refer to Itie exhibit (Exhibit) A network engineer started t...; Question 67: Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands...; Question 68: Refer to the exhibit. Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity b...; Question 69: Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface ...; Question 70: Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides secu...; Question 71: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit)...; Question 72: What is a function of MAC address learning?...; Question 73: Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor ...; Question 74: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What does the host do when u...; Question 75: Refer to the exhibit. Connectivity between four routers has ...; Question 76: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which change to the configur...; Question 77: What are two capabilities provided by VRRP within a LAN netw...; Question 78: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Rotor to the exhibit. The IP add...; Question 79: Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the ...; Question 80: Which type of address is shared by routers in a HSRP impleme...; Question 81: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The given Windows PC is requ...; Question 82: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which interface is chosen to...; Question 83: What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Da...; Question 84: What differentiates device management enabled by cisco DNA c...; Question 85: Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?...; Question 86: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration issue is...; Question 87: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Site A was recently connecte...; Question 88: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Host A switch interface is c...; Question 89: What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote site...; Question 90: Which device tracks the state of active connections in order...; Question 91: Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by...; Question 92: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Load-balanced traffic is com...; Question 93: Drag the descriptions of device management from the left ont...; Question 94: What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?...; Question 95: Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wirel...; Question 96: Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the...; Question 97: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is represented by "R1" ...; Question 98: What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when u...; Question 99: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many arrays are present ...; Question 100: A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network usi...; Question 101: What are two recommendations for protecting network ports fr...; Question 102: Refer to the exhibit. When router R1 receives a packet with ...; Question 103: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator must config...; Question 104: Which type of hypervisor operates without an underlying OS t...; Question 105: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Traffic that is flowing over...; Question 106: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What does router R1 use as i...; Question 107: What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )...; Question 108: Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?...; Question 109: What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for ...; Question 110: Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional...; Question 111: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is represented by the w...; Question 112: in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for sc...; Question 113: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The router has been configur...; Question 114: What is a DNS lookup operation?...; Question 115: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 116: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 117: Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enab...; Question 118: Which protocol uses the SSL?; Question 119: Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between tw...; Question 120: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Between which zones do wirel...; Question 121: What is a capability of FTP in network management operations...; Question 122: Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value...; Question 123: Which two VPN technologies are recommended by Cisco for mult...; Question 124: What is a function of an endpoint on a network?...; Question 125: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer configure...; Question 126: A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is rem...; Question 127: What is the function of "off-the-shell" switches in a contro...; Question 128: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration allows r...; Question 129: What is the role of SNMP in the network?...; Question 130: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the prefix length fo...; Question 131: A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence....; Question 132: Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the des...; Question 133: Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left...; Question 134: What describes the operation of virtual machines?...; Question 135: Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-po...; Question 136: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) All VLANs are present in the...; Question 137: Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch usi...; Question 138: R1 as an NTP server must have: * NTP authentication enabled ...; Question 139: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer must configure t...; Question 140: What is the function of a controller in controller-based net...; Question 141: How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification,...; Question 142: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R14 is in the process...; Question 143: Drag and drop the REST API call methods for HTTP from the le...; Question 144: How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?...; Question 145: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R1 resides in OSPF Ar...; Question 146: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many JSON objects are pr...; Question 147: Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office ...; Question 148: When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch ...; Question 149: What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based n...; Question 150: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration for RTR-...; Question 151: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command configures OSP...; Question 152: What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?...; Question 153: Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the global...; Question 154: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 155: In which circumstance would a network architect decide to im...; Question 156: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An extended ACL has been con...; Question 157: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Connectivity between three r...; Question 158: What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?...; Question 159: A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on t...; Question 160: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An OSPF neighbor relationshi...; Question 161: A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor ne...; Question 162: What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating...; Question 163: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which prefix did router R1 l...; Question 164: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If R1 receives a packet dest...; Question 165: What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping...; Question 166: An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to c...; Question 167: An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an emai...; Question 168: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer has started to c...; Question 169: Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking ...; Question 170: When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which a...; Question 171: Drag and drop the functions of SNMP fault-management from th...; Question 172: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The primary route across Gi0...; Question 173: What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T stand...; Question 174: Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the descri...; Question 175: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Traffic sourced from the loo...; Question 176: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R1 must be configured...; Question 177: What is the function of a controller in a software-defined n...; Question 178: A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router wit...; Question 179: When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two featu...; Question 180: Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left ont...; Question 181: What is a DHCP client?; Question 182: What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy proto...; Question 183: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Clients on the WLAN are requ...; Question 184: Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet th...; Question 185: An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches...; Question 186: How does MAC learning function on a switch?...; Question 187: Which interface enables communication between a program on t...; Question 188: When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode prov...; Question 189: Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes f...; Question 190: What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destina...; Question 191: What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network route...; Question 192: An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port securi...; Question 193: (Exhibit); Question 194: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R4 is dynamically lea...; Question 195: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) R1 has just received a packe...; Question 196: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Web traffic is coming in fro...; Question 197: Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a...; Question 198: A DHCP pool has been created with the name NOCC. The pool is...; Question 199: What are two differences between WPA2 and WPA3 wireless secu...; Question 200: An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per fl...; Question 201: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Users need to connect to the...; Question 202: What is a reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?...; Question 203: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Switch AccSw2 has just been ...; Question 204: What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by ente...; Question 205: Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions ...; Question 206: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Drag and drop the learned pr...; Question 207: Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core archi...; Question 208: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The image server and client ...; Question 209: Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in presha...; Question 210: Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management techn...; Question 211: What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?...; Question 212: When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be e...; Question 213: Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle a...; Question 214: What is the primary purpose of private address space?...; Question 215: Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless ...; Question 216: A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due ...; Question 217: Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure comm...; Question 218: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The SW1 and SW2 Gi0/0 ports ...; Question 219: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring t...; Question 220: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) All interfaces are in the sa...; Question 221: Which two practices are recommended for an acceptable securi...; Question 222: Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in...; Question 223: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. What i...; Question 224: While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is note...; Question 225: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 226: What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?...; Question 227: With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server whi...; Question 228: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) For security reasons, automa...; Question 229: Which action implements physical access control as part of t...; Question 230: Which properly is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interf...; Question 231: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. After ...; Question 232: Which component controls and distributes physical resources ...; Question 233: What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is gener...; Question 234: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Packets received by the rout...; Question 235: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How does router R1 handle tr...; Question 236: How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a c...; Question 237: What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional ...; Question 238: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Drag and drop the networking...; Question 239: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a...; Question 240: By default, how long will the switch continue to know a work...; Question 241: What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus...; Question 242: In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for inter...; Question 243: What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslo...; Question 244: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the subnet mask of t...; Question 245: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 246: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How does the router manage t...; Question 247: What is a DHCP client?; Question 248: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must upda...; Question 249: Which 802.11 frame type is association response?...; Question 250: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is asked to inse...; Question 251: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command configures a f...; Question 252: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) When router R1 is sending tr...; Question 253: What are two characteristics of a small office / home office...; Question 254: Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site 0...; Question 255: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring a...; Question 256: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. The IP...; Question 257: A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote acc...; Question 258: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration on RTR-1...; Question 259: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must prov...; Question 260: Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a C...; Question 261: A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device...; Question 262: Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corres...; Question 263: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) After configuring a new stat...; Question 264: What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)...; Question 265: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) R1 has taken the DROTHER rol...; Question 266: Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for C...; Question 267: A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to ...; Question 268: How is the native VLAN secured in a network?...; Question 269: An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided se...; Question 270: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer assumes a config...; Question 271: What software defined architecture plane assists network dev...; Question 272: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which IP route command creat...; Question 273: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Users on existing VLAN 100 c...; Question 274: Drag and drop the HTTP methods used with REST-Based APIs fro...; Question 275: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer must configure G...; Question 276: Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is en...; Question 277: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is a reason for poor pe...; Question 278: When is the PUT method used within HTTP?...; Question 279: How does encryption project the wireless network?...; Question 280: Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?...; Question 281: Which Windows command is used instead of the route print com...; Question 282: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A packet sourced from 10.10....; Question 283: Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward S...; Question 284: What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link?...; Question 285: Drag and chop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their ...; Question 286: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 287: Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left ...; Question 288: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two commands when used...; Question 289: which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast add...; Question 290: Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a networ...; Question 291: What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless en...; Question 292: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) SW_1 and SW_12 represent two...; Question 293: When a client and server are not on the same physical networ...; Question 294: The service password-encryption command is entered on a rout...; Question 295: Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by...; Question 296: A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a si...; Question 297: Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any o...; Question 298: Which protocol must be implemented to support separate autho...; Question 299: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must conf...; Question 300: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which next-hop IP address ha...; Question 301: Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalabili...; Question 302: What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?...; Question 303: Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be...; Question 304: What determines the sequence in which materials are planned ...; Question 305: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which action is expected fro...; Question 306: Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup ...; Question 307: What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode f...; Question 308: When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC a...; Question 309: What are two features of the DHCP relay agent? (Choose two.)...; Question 310: What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?...; Question 311: Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?...; Question 312: What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional netwo...; Question 313: How does authentication differ from authorization?...; Question 314: A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and...; Question 315: Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left ...; Question 316: Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless ...; Question 317: What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? ...; Question 318: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which route does R1 select f...; Question 319: What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connect...; Question 320: What is a characteristics of a collapsed-core network topolo...; Question 321: Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more exte...; Question 322: Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?...; Question 323: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator must...; Question 324: What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implem...; Question 325: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which network prefix was lea...; Question 326: Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active...; Question 327: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The New York router is confi...; Question 328: Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto thei...; Question 329: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which type of route does R1 ...; Question 330: Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management techn...; Question 331: What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a sh...; Question 332: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command must be issued...; Question 333: How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconne...; Question 334: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Wireless LAN access must be ...; Question 335: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What must be configured to e...; Question 336: The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into sma...; Question 337: What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Tw...; Question 338: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which next-hop IP address do...; Question 339: Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface...; Question 340: Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?...; Question 341: Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi...; Question 342: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit)...; Question 343: Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running co...; Question 344: What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine...; Question 345: Refer lo the exhibit. What is the next-hop P address for R2 ...; Question 346: A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEther...; Question 347: The clients and OHCP server reside on different subnets. Whi...; Question 348: What is used as a solution for protecting an individual netw...; Question 349: Which set of 2.4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is sta...; Question 350: What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two...; Question 351: An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated rout...; Question 352: What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a fram...; Question 353: What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC...; Question 354: Which two protocols are used by an administrator for authent...; Question 355: Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance ...; Question 356: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which route must be configur...; Question 357: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator received a ...; Question 358: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network engineer is conf...; Question 359: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must upda...; Question 360: Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?...; Question 361: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What two conclusions should ...; Question 362: Where does wireless authentication happen?...; Question 363: An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subne...; Question 364: What are two functions of DHCP servers? (Choose two.)...; Question 365: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 366: Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left i...; Question 367: Drag and drop the DNS commands from the left onto their effe...; Question 368: Which WPA mode uses PSK authentication?...; Question 369: A packet from a company s branch office is destined to host ...; Question 370: A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud serv...; Question 371: What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?...; Question 372: What are two benefits of controller-based networking compare...; Question 373: Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a...; Question 374: How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi c...; Question 375: What is the function of northbound API?...; Question 376: Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security fo...; Question 377: An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are config...; Question 378: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. What i...; Question 379: Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces...; Question 380: Drag and drop the characteristics of transport layer protoco...; Question 381: A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wir...; Question 382: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) When PC-A sends traffic to P...; Question 383: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two commands were used...; Question 384: An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication be...; Question 385: What differentiates device management enabled by Cisco DNA C...; Question 386: Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subne...; Question 387: Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cis...; Question 388: What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to ...; Question 389: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 ...; Question 390: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two values does router...; Question 391: What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?...; Question 392: Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the co...; Question 393: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which outcome is expected wh...; Question 394: Which technology must be implemented to configure network de...; Question 395: Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for diffe...; Question 396: Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to ...; Question 397: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit)...; Question 398: What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?...; Question 399: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A router reserved these five...; Question 400: Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve s...; Question 401: What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestio...; Question 402: On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol pr...; Question 403: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which per-hop QoS behavior i...; Question 404: A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attac...; Question 405: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which prefix does Router 1 u...; Question 406: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Packets received by the rout...; Question 407: What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?...; Question 408: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many JSON objects are re...; Question 409: Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left on...; Question 410: Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extens...; Question 411: What is the purpose of an SSID?...; Question 412: Which function does an SNMP agent perform?...; Question 413: Which two features introduced in SNMPv2 provides the ability...; Question 414: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the effect of this c...; Question 415: How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless...; Question 416: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An eng...; Question 417: An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed ...; Question 418: Where is the interface between the control plane and data pl...; Question 419: What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a ...; Question 420: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which password must an engin...; Question 421: What is a similarity OM3 and OM4 fiber optical cable?...; Question 422: Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address ra...; Question 423: When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it se...; Question 424: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 425: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An IP subnet must be configu...; Question 426: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Rapid PVST+ mode is on the s...; Question 427: When a floating static route is configured, which action ens...; Question 428: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The DHCP server and clients ...; Question 429: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Shortly after SiteA was conn...; Question 430: Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto th...; Question 431: Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left...; Question 432: Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz c...; Question 433: An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt...