200-301 Exam Dumps | Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device

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Question 410/433

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

E. modular design that is upgradable as needed

Question List (433q): 1 commentQuestion 1: In software defined architectures, which plane is distribute...; Question 2: Why would a network administrator choose to implement automa...; Question 3: Which security program element involves installing badge rea...; Question 4: How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliabilit...; Question 5: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 6: Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the config...; Question 7: Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH...; Question 8: Which (unction generally performed by a traditional network ...; Question 9: Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the com...; Question 10: Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers im...; Question 11: OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSP...; Question 12: Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network w...; Question 13: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If the network environment i...; Question 14: What provides centralized control of authentication and roam...; Question 15: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The nip server 192.168.0.3 c...; Question 16: What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)...; Question 17: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 18: Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols fr...; Question 19: Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?...; Question 20: Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the l...; Question 21: How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local...; Question 22: What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?...; Question 23: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer is updati...; Question 24: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The following must be consid...; Question 25: When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architect...; Question 26: A router has two static routes to the same destination netwo...; Question 27: Refer to the exhibit. A multivendor network exists and the c...; Question 28: Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC?...; Question 29: What is a purpose of traffic shaping?...; Question 30: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator must turn o...; Question 31: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer is in the...; Question 32: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Drag a...; Question 33: Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?...; Question 34: Refer to the exhibit. Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 su...; Question 35: A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface ...; Question 36: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If OSPF is running on this n...; Question 37: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must conf...; Question 38: Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto thei...; Question 39: Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (...; Question 40: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) IP connectivity and OSPF are...; Question 41: What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?...; Question 42: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) After the election process w...; Question 43: Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early...; Question 44: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An enginee...; Question 45: What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?...; Question 46: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An eng...; Question 47: Which is a fact related to FTP?...; Question 48: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) The loopback1 interface of the A...; Question 49: R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing prot...; Question 50: Drag and drop the configuration management terms from the le...; Question 51: Drag and drop the device behaviors from the left onto the ma...; Question 52: What Is a syslog facility?; Question 53: Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traf...; Question 54: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A packet sourced from 172.18...; Question 55: What is the primary different between AAA authentication and...; Question 56: Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to p...; Question 57: Which two values or settings must be entered when configurin...; Question 58: Which type of security program is violated when a group of e...; Question 59: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Switch A is newly configured...; Question 60: A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers ...; Question 61: An engineer is configuring data and voice services to pass t...; Question 62: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is updating the ...; Question 63: Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-ban...; Question 64: What is the role of the root port in a switched network?...; Question 65: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator has ...; Question 66: Refer to Itie exhibit (Exhibit) A network engineer started t...; Question 67: Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands...; Question 68: Refer to the exhibit. Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity b...; Question 69: Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface ...; Question 70: Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides secu...; Question 71: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit)...; Question 72: What is a function of MAC address learning?...; Question 73: Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor ...; Question 74: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What does the host do when u...; Question 75: Refer to the exhibit. Connectivity between four routers has ...; Question 76: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which change to the configur...; Question 77: What are two capabilities provided by VRRP within a LAN netw...; Question 78: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Rotor to the exhibit. The IP add...; Question 79: Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the ...; Question 80: Which type of address is shared by routers in a HSRP impleme...; Question 81: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The given Windows PC is requ...; Question 82: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which interface is chosen to...; Question 83: What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Da...; Question 84: What differentiates device management enabled by cisco DNA c...; Question 85: Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?...; Question 86: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration issue is...; Question 87: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Site A was recently connecte...; Question 88: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Host A switch interface is c...; Question 89: What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote site...; Question 90: Which device tracks the state of active connections in order...; Question 91: Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by...; Question 92: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Load-balanced traffic is com...; Question 93: Drag the descriptions of device management from the left ont...; Question 94: What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?...; Question 95: Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wirel...; Question 96: Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the...; Question 97: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is represented by "R1" ...; Question 98: What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when u...; Question 99: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many arrays are present ...; Question 100: A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network usi...; Question 101: What are two recommendations for protecting network ports fr...; Question 102: Refer to the exhibit. When router R1 receives a packet with ...; Question 103: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator must config...; Question 104: Which type of hypervisor operates without an underlying OS t...; Question 105: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Traffic that is flowing over...; Question 106: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What does router R1 use as i...; Question 107: What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )...; Question 108: Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?...; Question 109: What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for ...; Question 110: Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional...; Question 111: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is represented by the w...; Question 112: in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for sc...; Question 113: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The router has been configur...; Question 114: What is a DNS lookup operation?...; Question 115: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 116: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 117: Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enab...; Question 118: Which protocol uses the SSL?; Question 119: Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between tw...; Question 120: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Between which zones do wirel...; Question 121: What is a capability of FTP in network management operations...; Question 122: Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value...; Question 123: Which two VPN technologies are recommended by Cisco for mult...; Question 124: What is a function of an endpoint on a network?...; Question 125: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer configure...; Question 126: A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is rem...; Question 127: What is the function of "off-the-shell" switches in a contro...; Question 128: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration allows r...; Question 129: What is the role of SNMP in the network?...; Question 130: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the prefix length fo...; Question 131: A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence....; Question 132: Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the des...; Question 133: Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left...; Question 134: What describes the operation of virtual machines?...; Question 135: Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-po...; Question 136: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) All VLANs are present in the...; Question 137: Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch usi...; Question 138: R1 as an NTP server must have: * NTP authentication enabled ...; Question 139: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer must configure t...; Question 140: What is the function of a controller in controller-based net...; Question 141: How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification,...; Question 142: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R14 is in the process...; Question 143: Drag and drop the REST API call methods for HTTP from the le...; Question 144: How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?...; Question 145: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R1 resides in OSPF Ar...; Question 146: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many JSON objects are pr...; Question 147: Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office ...; Question 148: When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch ...; Question 149: What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based n...; Question 150: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration for RTR-...; Question 151: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command configures OSP...; Question 152: What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?...; Question 153: Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the global...; Question 154: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 155: In which circumstance would a network architect decide to im...; Question 156: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An extended ACL has been con...; Question 157: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Connectivity between three r...; Question 158: What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?...; Question 159: A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on t...; Question 160: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An OSPF neighbor relationshi...; Question 161: A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor ne...; Question 162: What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating...; Question 163: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which prefix did router R1 l...; Question 164: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If R1 receives a packet dest...; Question 165: What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping...; Question 166: An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to c...; Question 167: An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an emai...; Question 168: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer has started to c...; Question 169: Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking ...; Question 170: When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which a...; Question 171: Drag and drop the functions of SNMP fault-management from th...; Question 172: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The primary route across Gi0...; Question 173: What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T stand...; Question 174: Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the descri...; Question 175: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Traffic sourced from the loo...; Question 176: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R1 must be configured...; Question 177: What is the function of a controller in a software-defined n...; Question 178: A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router wit...; Question 179: When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two featu...; Question 180: Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left ont...; Question 181: What is a DHCP client?; Question 182: What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy proto...; Question 183: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Clients on the WLAN are requ...; Question 184: Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet th...; Question 185: An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches...; Question 186: How does MAC learning function on a switch?...; Question 187: Which interface enables communication between a program on t...; Question 188: When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode prov...; Question 189: Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes f...; Question 190: What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destina...; Question 191: What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network route...; Question 192: An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port securi...; Question 193: (Exhibit); Question 194: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R4 is dynamically lea...; Question 195: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) R1 has just received a packe...; Question 196: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Web traffic is coming in fro...; Question 197: Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a...; Question 198: A DHCP pool has been created with the name NOCC. The pool is...; Question 199: What are two differences between WPA2 and WPA3 wireless secu...; Question 200: An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per fl...; Question 201: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Users need to connect to the...; Question 202: What is a reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?...; Question 203: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Switch AccSw2 has just been ...; Question 204: What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by ente...; Question 205: Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions ...; Question 206: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Drag and drop the learned pr...; Question 207: Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core archi...; Question 208: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The image server and client ...; Question 209: Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in presha...; Question 210: Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management techn...; Question 211: What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?...; Question 212: When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be e...; Question 213: Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle a...; Question 214: What is the primary purpose of private address space?...; Question 215: Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless ...; Question 216: A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due ...; Question 217: Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure comm...; Question 218: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The SW1 and SW2 Gi0/0 ports ...; Question 219: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring t...; Question 220: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) All interfaces are in the sa...; Question 221: Which two practices are recommended for an acceptable securi...; Question 222: Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in...; Question 223: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. What i...; Question 224: While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is note...; Question 225: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 226: What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?...; Question 227: With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server whi...; Question 228: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) For security reasons, automa...; Question 229: Which action implements physical access control as part of t...; Question 230: Which properly is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interf...; Question 231: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. After ...; Question 232: Which component controls and distributes physical resources ...; Question 233: What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is gener...; Question 234: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Packets received by the rout...; Question 235: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How does router R1 handle tr...; Question 236: How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a c...; Question 237: What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional ...; Question 238: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Drag and drop the networking...; Question 239: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a...; Question 240: By default, how long will the switch continue to know a work...; Question 241: What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus...; Question 242: In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for inter...; Question 243: What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslo...; Question 244: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the subnet mask of t...; Question 245: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 246: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How does the router manage t...; Question 247: What is a DHCP client?; Question 248: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must upda...; Question 249: Which 802.11 frame type is association response?...; Question 250: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is asked to inse...; Question 251: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command configures a f...; Question 252: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) When router R1 is sending tr...; Question 253: What are two characteristics of a small office / home office...; Question 254: Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site 0...; Question 255: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring a...; Question 256: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. The IP...; Question 257: A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote acc...; Question 258: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration on RTR-1...; Question 259: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must prov...; Question 260: Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a C...; Question 261: A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device...; Question 262: Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corres...; Question 263: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) After configuring a new stat...; Question 264: What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)...; Question 265: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) R1 has taken the DROTHER rol...; Question 266: Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for C...; Question 267: A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to ...; Question 268: How is the native VLAN secured in a network?...; Question 269: An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided se...; Question 270: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer assumes a config...; Question 271: What software defined architecture plane assists network dev...; Question 272: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which IP route command creat...; Question 273: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Users on existing VLAN 100 c...; Question 274: Drag and drop the HTTP methods used with REST-Based APIs fro...; Question 275: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer must configure G...; Question 276: Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is en...; Question 277: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is a reason for poor pe...; Question 278: When is the PUT method used within HTTP?...; Question 279: How does encryption project the wireless network?...; Question 280: Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?...; Question 281: Which Windows command is used instead of the route print com...; Question 282: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A packet sourced from 10.10....; Question 283: Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward S...; Question 284: What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link?...; Question 285: Drag and chop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their ...; Question 286: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 287: Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left ...; Question 288: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two commands when used...; Question 289: which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast add...; Question 290: Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a networ...; Question 291: What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless en...; Question 292: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) SW_1 and SW_12 represent two...; Question 293: When a client and server are not on the same physical networ...; Question 294: The service password-encryption command is entered on a rout...; Question 295: Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by...; Question 296: A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a si...; Question 297: Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any o...; Question 298: Which protocol must be implemented to support separate autho...; Question 299: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must conf...; Question 300: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which next-hop IP address ha...; Question 301: Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalabili...; Question 302: What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?...; Question 303: Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be...; Question 304: What determines the sequence in which materials are planned ...; Question 305: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which action is expected fro...; Question 306: Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup ...; Question 307: What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode f...; Question 308: When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC a...; Question 309: What are two features of the DHCP relay agent? (Choose two.)...; Question 310: What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?...; Question 311: Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?...; Question 312: What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional netwo...; Question 313: How does authentication differ from authorization?...; Question 314: A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and...; Question 315: Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left ...; Question 316: Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless ...; Question 317: What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? ...; Question 318: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which route does R1 select f...; Question 319: What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connect...; Question 320: What is a characteristics of a collapsed-core network topolo...; Question 321: Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more exte...; Question 322: Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?...; Question 323: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator must...; Question 324: What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implem...; Question 325: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which network prefix was lea...; Question 326: Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active...; Question 327: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The New York router is confi...; Question 328: Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto thei...; Question 329: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which type of route does R1 ...; Question 330: Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management techn...; Question 331: What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a sh...; Question 332: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command must be issued...; Question 333: How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconne...; Question 334: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Wireless LAN access must be ...; Question 335: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What must be configured to e...; Question 336: The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into sma...; Question 337: What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Tw...; Question 338: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which next-hop IP address do...; Question 339: Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface...; Question 340: Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?...; Question 341: Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi...; Question 342: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit)...; Question 343: Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running co...; Question 344: What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine...; Question 345: Refer lo the exhibit. What is the next-hop P address for R2 ...; Question 346: A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEther...; Question 347: The clients and OHCP server reside on different subnets. Whi...; Question 348: What is used as a solution for protecting an individual netw...; Question 349: Which set of 2.4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is sta...; Question 350: What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two...; Question 351: An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated rout...; Question 352: What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a fram...; Question 353: What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC...; Question 354: Which two protocols are used by an administrator for authent...; Question 355: Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance ...; Question 356: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which route must be configur...; Question 357: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator received a ...; Question 358: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network engineer is conf...; Question 359: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must upda...; Question 360: Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?...; Question 361: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What two conclusions should ...; Question 362: Where does wireless authentication happen?...; Question 363: An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subne...; Question 364: What are two functions of DHCP servers? (Choose two.)...; Question 365: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 366: Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left i...; Question 367: Drag and drop the DNS commands from the left onto their effe...; Question 368: Which WPA mode uses PSK authentication?...; Question 369: A packet from a company s branch office is destined to host ...; Question 370: A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud serv...; Question 371: What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?...; Question 372: What are two benefits of controller-based networking compare...; Question 373: Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a...; Question 374: How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi c...; Question 375: What is the function of northbound API?...; Question 376: Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security fo...; Question 377: An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are config...; Question 378: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. What i...; Question 379: Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces...; Question 380: Drag and drop the characteristics of transport layer protoco...; Question 381: A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wir...; Question 382: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) When PC-A sends traffic to P...; Question 383: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two commands were used...; Question 384: An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication be...; Question 385: What differentiates device management enabled by Cisco DNA C...; Question 386: Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subne...; Question 387: Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cis...; Question 388: What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to ...; Question 389: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 ...; Question 390: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two values does router...; Question 391: What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?...; Question 392: Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the co...; Question 393: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which outcome is expected wh...; Question 394: Which technology must be implemented to configure network de...; Question 395: Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for diffe...; Question 396: Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to ...; Question 397: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit)...; Question 398: What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?...; Question 399: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A router reserved these five...; Question 400: Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve s...; Question 401: What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestio...; Question 402: On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol pr...; Question 403: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which per-hop QoS behavior i...; Question 404: A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attac...; Question 405: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which prefix does Router 1 u...; Question 406: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Packets received by the rout...; Question 407: What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?...; Question 408: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many JSON objects are re...; Question 409: Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left on...; Question 410: Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extens...; Question 411: What is the purpose of an SSID?...; Question 412: Which function does an SNMP agent perform?...; Question 413: Which two features introduced in SNMPv2 provides the ability...; Question 414: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the effect of this c...; Question 415: How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless...; Question 416: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An eng...; Question 417: An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed ...; Question 418: Where is the interface between the control plane and data pl...; Question 419: What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a ...; Question 420: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which password must an engin...; Question 421: What is a similarity OM3 and OM4 fiber optical cable?...; Question 422: Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address ra...; Question 423: When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it se...; Question 424: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 425: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An IP subnet must be configu...; Question 426: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Rapid PVST+ mode is on the s...; Question 427: When a floating static route is configured, which action ens...; Question 428: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The DHCP server and clients ...; Question 429: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Shortly after SiteA was conn...; Question 430: Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto th...; Question 431: Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left...; Question 432: Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz c...; Question 433: An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt...

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