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Exam Code:	200-301
Exam Name:	Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam
Certification Provider:	Cisco
Free Question Number:	422
Version:	v2025-08-01
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# of Questions views:	12861
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Exam Question List: Question 1: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The entire contents of the M...; Question 2: Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exce...; Question 3: Which mechanism allows WPA3 to provide a higher degree of se...; Question 4: Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto th...; Question 5: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What does route 10.0.1.3/32 ...; Question 6: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The default-information orig...; Question 7: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which route does R1 select f...; Question 8: Which IPsec transport mode encrypts the IP header and the pa...; Question 9: Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-ban...; Question 10: Which technology is appropriate for communication between an...; Question 11: Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subne...; Question 12: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What are the two steps an en...; Question 13: Refer to me exhibit. (Exhibit) Which action is taken by the ...; Question 14: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring a...; Question 15: Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combi...; Question 16: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 17: Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a...; Question 18: Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traf...; Question 19: Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the ...; Question 20: Drag and drop the management connection types from the left ...; Question 21: When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Contr...; Question 22: What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in a...; Question 23: What is the role of the root port in a switched network?...; Question 24: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The DHCP server and clients ...; Question 25: Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a ...; Question 26: All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy ...; Question 27: Drag and chop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their ...; Question 28: Drag and drop the TCP and UDP characteristics from the left ...; Question 29: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 30: Which device tracks the state of active connections in order...; Question 31: The service password-encryption command is entered on a rout...; Question 32: What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementatio...; Question 33: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the next hop address...; Question 34: What is the function of "off-the-shell" switches in a contro...; Question 35: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command must be execut...; Question 36: How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Ce...; Question 37: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer must configure a...; Question 38: Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the global...; Question 39: An engineer must configure a core router with a floating sta...; Question 40: How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a c...; Question 41: Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST...; Question 42: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which route type is configur...; Question 43: Which protocol uses the SSL?; Question 44: Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choo...; Question 45: What is the main difference between traditional networks and...; Question 46: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The given Windows PC is requ...; Question 47: Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power...; Question 48: What criteria is used first during me root port selection pr...; Question 49: What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)...; Question 50: Which type of IPv4 address must be assigned to a server to p...; Question 51: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network administrator mu...; Question 52: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which IPv6 configuration is ...; Question 53: Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the des...; Question 54: What determines the sequence in which materials are planned ...; Question 55: A packet from a company s branch office is destined to host ...; Question 56: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many objects, Keys and J...; Question 57: What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?...; Question 58: Drag and drop the DNS commands from the left onto their effe...; Question 59: Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds f...; Question 60: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which route type does the ro...; Question 61: What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design o...; Question 62: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring t...; Question 63: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The router has been configur...; Question 64: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The following must be consid...; Question 65: What is a benefit for external users who consume public clou...; Question 66: What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?...; Question 67: What is the primary different between AAA authentication and...; Question 68: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many JSON objects are pr...; Question 69: Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface...; Question 70: Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the descri...; Question 71: What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?...; Question 72: What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?...; Question 73: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command configures OSP...; Question 74: What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a ...; Question 75: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Drag and drop the learned pr...; Question 76: Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the lef...; Question 77: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Routers R1 and R3 have the d...; Question 78: What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a fram...; Question 79: What differentiates the Cisco OfficeExtend AP mode from Flex...; Question 80: Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extens...; Question 81: Refer to the exhibit. A multivendor network exists and the c...; Question 82: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Host A switch interface is c...; Question 83: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration must be appl...; Question 84: What is the function of a server?...; Question 85: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command provides this ...; Question 86: What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)...; Question 87: Which EtherChannel mode must be configured when using LAG on...; Question 88: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R1 is running three d...; Question 89: Which two wireless security stewards use Counter Mode Cipher...; Question 90: Which switch technology establishes a network connection imm...; Question 91: What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addr...; Question 92: Which enhancements were implemented as part of WPA3?...; Question 93: What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? ...; Question 94: What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when u...; Question 95: Refer to exhibit. (Exhibit) Which statement explains the con...; Question 96: Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to t...; Question 97: Which two values or settings must be entered when configurin...; Question 98: Which component controls and distributes physical resources ...; Question 99: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An access list is required t...; Question 100: How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?...; Question 101: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer configure...; Question 102: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator must turn o...; Question 103: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which type of route does R1 ...; Question 104: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is required to v...; Question 105: Drag and drop the device behaviors from the left onto the ma...; Question 106: What is a specification for SSIDS?...; Question 107: Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance ...; Question 108: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Packets received by the rout...; Question 109: Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core archi...; Question 110: Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. Fo...; Question 111: What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating...; Question 112: What is a DHCP client?; Question 113: Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more exte...; Question 114: What are two functions of DHCP servers? (Choose two.)...; Question 115: What is a benefit of VRRP?; Question 116: Which cable type must be used when connecting a router and s...; Question 117: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is a...; Question 118: A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is d...; Question 119: Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve s...; Question 120: Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures f...; Question 121: Which set of 2.4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is sta...; Question 122: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) R1 learns all routes via OSP...; Question 123: Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 80...; Question 124: An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the ena...; Question 125: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 126: Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left ont...; Question 127: A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch o...; Question 128: Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to genera...; Question 129: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) All interfaces are in the sa...; Question 130: What are two protocols within the IPsec suite? (Choose two)...; Question 131: Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4...; Question 132: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Clients on the WLAN are requ...; Question 133: How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?...; Question 134: What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?...; Question 135: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbp...; Question 136: What is the put method within HTTP?...; Question 137: What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?...; Question 138: What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configur...; Question 139: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Traffic sourced from the loo...; Question 140: Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarante...; Question 141: How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi c...; Question 142: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSON data is s...; Question 143: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) In which structure does the ...; Question 144: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What are two conclusions abo...; Question 145: What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?...; Question 146: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two commands were used...; Question 147: Where is the interface between the control plane and data pl...; Question 148: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R1 must be configured...; Question 149: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must conf...; Question 150: A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet i...; Question 151: What does WPA3 provide in wireless networking?...; Question 152: A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and ti...; Question 153: Which action implements physical access control as part of t...; Question 154: Drag and drop the AAA lerms from the left onto the descripti...; Question 155: Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running co...; Question 156: When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC a...; Question 157: What is a capability of FTP in network management operations...; Question 158: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is checking the ...; Question 159: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the prefix length fo...; Question 160: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 161: What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose...; Question 162: Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a...; Question 163: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which network prefix was lea...; Question 164: What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?...; Question 165: What are two improvements provided by automation for network...; Question 166: When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode prov...; Question 167: How is the native VLAN secured in a network?...; Question 168: What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based a...; Question 169: Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cis...; Question 170: Why would a network administrator choose to implement automa...; Question 171: Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with ...; Question 172: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two commands must be c...; Question 173: Refer to the exhibit. An engineer assigns IP addressing to t...; Question 174: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Drag and drop the destinatio...; Question 175: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) How does SW2 interact with other...; Question 176: A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device...; Question 177: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Shortly after SiteA was conn...; Question 178: A router received three destination prefixes:10.0.0/18, and ...; Question 179: What is the purpose of an SSID?...; Question 180: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must conf...; Question 181: The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into sma...; Question 182: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer has started to c...; Question 183: What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?...; Question 184: Which is a fact related to FTP?...; Question 185: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Users need to connect to the...; Question 186: Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto thei...; Question 187: A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacen...; Question 188: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator must config...; Question 189: Which network allows devices to communicate without the need...; Question 190: What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?...; Question 191: Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto t...; Question 192: What describes a northbound REST API for SON?...; Question 193: A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface ...; Question 194: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) SW_1 and SW_12 represent two...; Question 195: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration for RTR-...; Question 196: Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active...; Question 197: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must bloc...; Question 198: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which plan must be Implement...; Question 199: Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left ...; Question 200: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch in this configu...; Question 201: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How does the router manage t...; Question 202: Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management techn...; Question 203: What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?...; Question 204: In software defined architectures, which plane is distribute...; Question 205: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring the N...; Question 206: An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0...; Question 207: Which type of encryption does WPA1 use for data protection?...; Question 208: What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to ...; Question 209: An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server w...; Question 210: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer must configure r...; Question 211: What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destina...; Question 212: Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP c...; Question 213: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) PC A is communicating with a...; Question 214: When is the PUT method used within HTTP?...; Question 215: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) After configuring a new stat...; Question 216: A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote acc...; Question 217: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How should the configuration...; Question 218: A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due ...; Question 219: What differentiates device management enabled by cisco DNA c...; Question 220: Which Windows command is used instead of the route print com...; Question 221: How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification,...; Question 222: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which next-hop IP address ha...; Question 223: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer deploys a topolo...; Question 224: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer executed the scr...; Question 225: Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented ...; Question 226: Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the tr...; Question 227: What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implem...; Question 228: Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the cor...; Question 229: Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz c...; Question 230: Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for diffe...; Question 231: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a...; Question 232: An engineer is configuring SSH version 2 exclusively on the ...; Question 233: An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. ...; Question 234: Which interface is used for out-of-band management on a WLC?...; Question 235: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network engineer is conf...; Question 236: How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconne...; Question 237: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The loopback1 interface of t...; Question 238: A network administrator wants the syslog server to filter in...; Question 239: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) When PC-A sends traffic to P...; Question 240: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Web traffic is coming in fro...; Question 241: What criteria is used first during the root port selection p...; Question 242: What should a network administrator consider when deciding t...; Question 243: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator must...; Question 244: An engineer is configuring router R1 with an IPv6 static rou...; Question 245: How do UTP and STP cables compare?...; Question 246: Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection proces...; Question 247: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer is in the...; Question 248: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router OldR is replacing ano...; Question 249: When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN ...; Question 250: Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?...; Question 251: What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?...; Question 252: Which device separates networks by security domains?...; Question 253: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two values does router...; Question 254: Which device controls the forwarding of authentication reque...; Question 255: which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-ba...; Question 256: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 257: Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from ...; Question 258: A WLC sends alarms about a rogue AP, and the network adminis...; Question 259: Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enab...; Question 260: Which two primary drivers support the need for network autom...; Question 261: What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based netwo...; Question 262: Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)...; Question 263: Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST A...; Question 264: Drag and drop the elements of a security program from the le...; Question 265: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The SW1 and SW2 Gi0/0 ports ...; Question 266: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Packets received by the rout...; Question 267: An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per fl...; Question 268: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. The IP...; Question 269: What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)...; Question 270: Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left...; Question 271: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R2 is configured with...; Question 272: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If R1 receives a packet dest...; Question 273: What does traffic shaping do?; Question 274: Which attribute does a router use to select the best path wh...; Question 275: What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)...; Question 276: Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute?...; Question 277: Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require ext...; Question 278: which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast add...; Question 279: Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decis...; Question 280: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must conf...; Question 281: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer is updati...; Question 282: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The P2P blocking action opti...; Question 283: When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless ...; Question 284: By default, how long will the switch continue to know a work...; Question 285: A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a si...; Question 286: What are two recommendations for protecting network ports fr...; Question 287: Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-t...; Question 288: Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?...; Question 289: An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port securi...; Question 290: What are two benefits of controller-based networking compare...; Question 291: Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by...; Question 292: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is missing from this ou...; Question 293: Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at...; Question 294: Drag the descriptions of device management from the left ont...; Question 295: Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by...; Question 296: Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with ...; Question 297: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How does router R1 handle tr...; Question 298: Company has decided to require multifactor authentication fo...; Question 299: Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC?...; Question 300: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by "R1" ...; Question 301: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What action establishes the ...; Question 302: Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in...; Question 303: An engineer is configuring data and voice services to pass t...; Question 304: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the subnet mask of t...; Question 305: (Exhibit) SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference r...; Question 306: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What must be configured to e...; Question 307: What does a router do when configured with the default DNS l...; Question 308: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two configurations mus...; Question 309: Which CRUD operation corresponds to me HTTP GET method?...; Question 310: What is a function of MAC address learning?...; Question 311: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator is tasked w...; Question 312: In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance ...; Question 313: An engineer must configure a core router with a floating sta...; Question 314: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the next step to com...; Question 315: Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?...; Question 316: What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and a...; Question 317: What are two lacts that differentiate optical-fiber cabling ...; Question 318: A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and...; Question 319: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 320: What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol ...; Question 321: Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet ...; Question 322: What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packe...; Question 323: What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?...; Question 324: An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to c...; Question 325: Which security program element involves installing badge rea...; Question 326: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is bringing up a...; Question 327: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many JSON objects are re...; Question 328: What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast com...; Question 329: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A static route must be confi...; Question 330: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If OSPF Is running on this n...; Question 331: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R1 currently is confi...; Question 332: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit)...; Question 333: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which IP route command creat...; Question 334: How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliabilit...; Question 335: Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 a...; Question 336: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What does the host do when u...; Question 337: Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses f...; Question 338: Which Rapid PVST+ feature should be configured on a switch p...; Question 339: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the issue with the i...; Question 340: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Rooter R1 is added to the ne...; Question 341: What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?...; Question 342: Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP tr...; Question 343: How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model?...; Question 344: Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left...; Question 345: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which interface is chosen to...; Question 346: When is the PUT method used within HTTP?...; Question 347: A network administrator enabled port security on a switch in...; Question 348: A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router wit...; Question 349: What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?...; Question 350: How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature functio...; Question 351: What is an enhancement implemented in WPA3?...; Question 352: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring a...; Question 353: Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value...; Question 354: Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the config...; Question 355: Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces...; Question 356: What is a function of an endpoint?...; Question 357: What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and ...; Question 358: A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco a...; Question 359: What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless en...; Question 360: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two commands must be a...; Question 361: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is c...; Question 362: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer configured NAT t...; Question 363: Which function does an SNMP agent perform?...; Question 364: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Only four switches are parti...; Question 365: What is the benefit of using FHRP?...; Question 366: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which format matches the Mod...; Question 367: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) To which device does Router1...; Question 368: Refer the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the cause of poor perfo...; Question 369: An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog ...; Question 370: A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to ...; Question 371: Which protocol does Ansible use to push modules to nodes in ...; Question 372: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is creating a se...; Question 373: Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors,...; Question 374: in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for sc...; Question 375: When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two featu...; Question 376: Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descripti...; Question 377: What happens when a switch receives a frame with a destinati...; Question 378: PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MA...; Question 379: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which action must be taken s...; Question 380: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring t...; Question 381: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which type of configuration ...; Question 382: If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively t...; Question 383: The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two ...; Question 384: What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine...; Question 385: Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines d...; Question 386: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) R5 is the current DR on the ...; Question 387: What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?...; Question 388: Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial s...; Question 389: What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy proto...; Question 390: What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is gener...; Question 391: A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to...; Question 392: Which encryption method is used by WPA3?...; Question 393: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is updating the ...; Question 394: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the result if Gig1/1...; Question 395: A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor ne...; Question 396: What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol i...; Question 397: What is the temporary state that switch ports always enter i...; Question 398: Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the ...; Question 399: How is noise defined in Wi-Fi?; Question 400: Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2...; Question 401: Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward S...; Question 402: An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. ...; Question 403: What is the function of a controller in a software-defined n...; Question 404: What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protoco...; Question 405: Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the corre...; Question 406: A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except...; Question 407: An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided se...; Question 408: A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers ...; Question 409: Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be...; Question 410: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Packets are flowing from 192...; Question 411: Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?...; Question 412: Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller f...; Question 413: Which technology must be implemented to configure network de...; Question 414: A network engineer must configure an access list on a new Ci...; Question 415: Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the co...; Question 416: Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS ...; Question 417: Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup ...; Question 418: A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence....; Question 419: How does WPA3 improve security?...; Question 420: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Rotor to the exhibit. The IP add...; Question 421: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A packet is being sent acros...; Question 422: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The administrator must confi...

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