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Exam Code:	200-301
Exam Name:	Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam
Certification Provider:	Cisco
Free Question Number:	424
Version:	v2024-09-27
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Exam Question List: Question 1: Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in...; Question 2: Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address b...; Question 3: What is a function of TFTP in network operations?...; Question 4: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two commands were used...; Question 5: Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command ...; Question 6: A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due ...; Question 7: Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose...; Question 8: Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct n...; Question 9: What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?...; Question 10: Drag and drop the device behaviors from the left onto the ma...; Question 11: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbp...; Question 12: Where is the interface between the control plane and data pl...; Question 13: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Load-balanced traffic is com...; Question 14: Which component controls and distributes physical resources ...; Question 15: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which prefix does Router 1 u...; Question 16: Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto thei...; Question 17: What is a purpose of traffic shaping?...; Question 18: How is the native VLAN secured in a network?...; Question 19: What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for ...; Question 20: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer configure...; Question 21: Refer to exhibit. (Exhibit) Which statement explains the con...; Question 22: What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?...; Question 23: Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH...; Question 24: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) All interfaces are in the sa...; Question 25: Drag and drop the DNS commands from the left onto their effe...; Question 26: What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?...; Question 27: What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)...; Question 28: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command configures a f...; Question 29: Which device segregates a network into separate zones that h...; Question 30: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator must turn o...; Question 31: Drag and drop the HTTP methods used with REST-Based APIs fro...; Question 32: What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol ...; Question 33: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) When router R1 is sending tr...; Question 34: Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto thei...; Question 35: What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?...; Question 36: Refer to the exibit. (Exhibit) IP connectivity and OSPF are ...; Question 37: When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be e...; Question 38: which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-ba...; Question 39: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A packet is being sent acros...; Question 40: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the subnet mask of t...; Question 41: Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalabili...; Question 42: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An eng...; Question 43: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many arrays are present ...; Question 44: The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into sma...; Question 45: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer is config...; Question 46: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which password must an engin...; Question 47: Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running co...; Question 48: Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make...; Question 49: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration on RTR-1...; Question 50: Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the global...; Question 51: Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?...; Question 52: Which functionality is provided by the console connection on...; Question 53: What is a function of an endpoint?...; Question 54: What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in a...; Question 55: Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 must be implemented on R1 to the ...; Question 56: Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?...; Question 57: What criteria is used first during me root port selection pr...; Question 58: Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines d...; Question 59: Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?...; Question 60: What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to ...; Question 61: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R1 must be configured...; Question 62: When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN ...; Question 63: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R1 receives static ro...; Question 64: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Drag and drop the networking...; Question 65: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 66: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) which path is used by the ro...; Question 67: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Site A was recently connecte...; Question 68: How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the...; Question 69: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which route type is configur...; Question 70: Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto...; Question 71: A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud serv...; Question 72: Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choo...; Question 73: When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Contr...; Question 74: An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagg...; Question 75: R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. a...; Question 76: Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller f...; Question 77: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If R1 receives a packet dest...; Question 78: What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protoc...; Question 79: Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds f...; Question 80: When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MA...; Question 81: A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence....; Question 82: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which format matches the Mod...; Question 83: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An access list is required t...; Question 84: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Only four switches are parti...; Question 85: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer configured the N...; Question 86: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command provides this ...; Question 87: What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications res...; Question 88: Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspect...; Question 89: What is a function of an endpoint on a network?...; Question 90: What is the advantage of separating the control plane from t...; Question 91: What describes a northbound REST API for SON?...; Question 92: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The DHCP server and clients ...; Question 93: Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more exte...; Question 94: Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes f...; Question 95: Which protocol uses the SSL?; Question 96: In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate fo...; Question 97: After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the...; Question 98: How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local...; Question 99: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If OSPF is running on this n...; Question 100: What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine...; Question 101: What is a function of MAC address learning?...; Question 102: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An eng...; Question 103: What is the function of a controller in a software-defined n...; Question 104: How do UTP and STP cables compare?...; Question 105: What is a characteristics of a collapsed-core network topolo...; Question 106: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) For security reasons, automa...; Question 107: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The router has been configur...; Question 108: What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabl...; Question 109: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which action must be taken t...; Question 110: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer must configure t...; Question 111: Why would a network administrator choose to implement automa...; Question 112: What is the definition of backdoor malware?...; Question 113: Drag and drop the characteristics of northbound APIs from th...; Question 114: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If OSPF Is running on this n...; Question 115: Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides secu...; Question 116: An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed ...; Question 117: Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols fr...; Question 118: An organization secures its network with multi-factor authen...; Question 119: How does frame switching function on a switch?...; Question 120: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command configures OSP...; Question 121: How is noise defined in Wi-Fi?; Question 122: Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?...; Question 123: The clients and OHCP server reside on different subnets. Whi...; Question 124: Which action is taken by the data plane within a network dev...; Question 125: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. The IP...; Question 126: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must upda...; Question 127: Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute?...; Question 128: Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-ban...; Question 129: A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to...; Question 130: When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode prov...; Question 131: Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to t...; Question 132: What is the function of "off-the-shell" switches in a contro...; Question 133: An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. ...; Question 134: Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-t...; Question 135: A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet i...; Question 136: Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choo...; Question 137: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which interface is chosen to...; Question 138: Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the ro...; Question 139: Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network w...; Question 140: What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol o...; Question 141: When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch ...; Question 142: Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and ...; Question 143: Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be...; Question 144: Which capability does TFTP provide?...; Question 145: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which next-hop IP address do...; Question 146: Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST...; Question 147: What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)...; Question 148: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) After running the code in th...; Question 149: A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers ...; Question 150: How does QoS optimize voice traffic?...; Question 151: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An extended ACL has been con...; Question 152: What must a network administrator consider when deciding whe...; Question 153: Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions ...; Question 154: What software defined architecture plane assists network dev...; Question 155: When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architect...; Question 156: Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left ...; Question 157: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Drag and drop the destinatio...; Question 158: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many JSON objects are pr...; Question 159: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 160: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the effect of this c...; Question 161: What is a benefit for external users who consume public clou...; Question 162: Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT devi...; Question 163: Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor ...; Question 164: What is a zero-day exploit?; Question 165: How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environme...; Question 166: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which IPv6 configuration is ...; Question 167: Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto t...; Question 168: What is the put method within HTTP?...; Question 169: What is the function of the controller in a software-defined...; Question 170: An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The ac...; Question 171: Drag and drop the use cases for device-management technologi...; Question 172: An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship bet...; Question 173: All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are full...; Question 174: Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?...; Question 175: Which encryption method is used by WPA3?...; Question 176: What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Da...; Question 177: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Traffic that is flowing over...; Question 178: Which device separates networks by security domains?...; Question 179: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R4 is dynamically lea...; Question 180: Which enhancements were implemented as part of WPA3?...; Question 181: What is a benefit of VRRP?; Question 182: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the next step to com...; Question 183: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer must configure G...; Question 184: How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Ce...; Question 185: Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traf...; Question 186: An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated rout...; Question 187: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is represented by the w...; Question 188: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Host A switch interface is c...; Question 189: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 190: What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and c...; Question 191: Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface...; Question 192: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. What i...; Question 193: To improve corporate security, an organization is planning t...; Question 194: Which interface enables communication between a program on t...; Question 195: Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet ...; Question 196: A DHCP pool has been created with the name NOCC. The pool is...; Question 197: Drag and drop the statements about access-point modes from t...; Question 198: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command must be execut...; Question 199: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router OldR is replacing ano...; Question 200: Refer to the Exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit)...; Question 201: Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center ...; Question 202: What is a characteristic of RSA?...; Question 203: Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left...; Question 204: In which circumstance would a network architect decide to im...; Question 205: The service password-encryption command is entered on a rout...; Question 206: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which minimum configuration ...; Question 207: What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and a...; Question 208: Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to ...; Question 209: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Drag and drop the learned pr...; Question 210: After a recent security breach and a RADIUS failure, an engi...; Question 211: Which command must be entered when a device is configured as...; Question 212: An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per fl...; Question 213: Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from...; Question 214: Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?...; Question 215: What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast com...; Question 216: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration issue is...; Question 217: Drag and drop the AAA lerms from the left onto the descripti...; Question 218: An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt...; Question 219: Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script ...; Question 220: Drag and chop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their ...; Question 221: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 222: A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due ...; Question 223: Which option about JSON is true?...; Question 224: which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast add...; Question 225: An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches...; Question 226: Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional...; Question 227: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator has ...; Question 228: How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet d...; Question 229: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer is in the...; Question 230: Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by...; Question 231: A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the sam...; Question 232: Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to p...; Question 233: Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2...; Question 234: Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a...; Question 235: Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left on...; Question 236: Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto thei...; Question 237: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) All traffic enters the CPE r...; Question 238: Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a networ...; Question 239: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Switch AccSw2 has just been ...; Question 240: Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any o...; Question 241: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring t...; Question 242: Which Windows command is used instead of the route print com...; Question 243: Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet th...; Question 244: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) R1 has just received a packe...; Question 245: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) IP connectivity between the ...; Question 246: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two prefixes are inclu...; Question 247: What are two functions of DHCP servers? (Choose two.)...; Question 248: Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at...; Question 249: Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS ...; Question 250: Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require ext...; Question 251: Where does wireless authentication happen?...; Question 252: What is the difference in data transmission delivery and rel...; Question 253: What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connect...; Question 254: Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cis...; Question 255: How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Ce...; Question 256: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Packets are flowing from 192...; Question 257: Which networking function occurs on the data plane?...; Question 258: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which route must be configur...; Question 259: Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 80...; Question 260: Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combi...; Question 261: What is the purpose of an SSID?...; Question 262: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A company is configuring a f...; Question 263: How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless...; Question 264: Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decis...; Question 265: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the next hop address...; Question 266: Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left i...; Question 267: Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP tr...; Question 268: What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configur...; Question 269: Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the descri...; Question 270: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An IP subnet must be configu...; Question 271: In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for inter...; Question 272: When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it se...; Question 273: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the prefix length fo...; Question 274: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The link between PC1 and the...; Question 275: Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between tw...; Question 276: Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?...; Question 277: What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?...; Question 278: Which type of IPv4 address must be assigned to a server to p...; Question 279: An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subne...; Question 280: What are two benefits of controller-based networking compare...; Question 281: Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?...; Question 282: The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two ...; Question 283: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer configured NAT t...; Question 284: When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless ...; Question 285: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must conf...; Question 286: An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to c...; Question 287: An engineer must configure a core router with a floating sta...; Question 288: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator must config...; Question 289: A router has two static routes to the same destination netwo...; Question 290: Drag and drop the configuration management terms from the le...; Question 291: What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?...; Question 292: Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface ...; Question 293: Drag and drop the IPv6 address details from the left onto th...; Question 294: What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise netw...; Question 295: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is updating the ...; Question 296: Which properly is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interf...; Question 297: What are two differences between WPA2 and WPA3 wireless secu...; Question 298: What are two reasons to implement DHCP in a network? (Choose...; Question 299: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A newly configured PC fails ...; Question 300: Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity qual...; Question 301: Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the cor...; Question 302: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer started t...; Question 303: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 304: Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct co...; Question 305: When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router a...; Question 306: Which components are contained within a virtual machine?...; Question 307: What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and ...; Question 308: With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server whi...; Question 309: Which communication interaction takes place when a southboun...; Question 310: Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (...; Question 311: Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces...; Question 312: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Rooter R1 is added to the ne...; Question 313: What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect A...; Question 314: What is the role of SNMP in the network?...; Question 315: What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?...; Question 316: Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial s...; Question 317: Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office ...; Question 318: What is the function of a controller in controller-based net...; Question 319: Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and list...; Question 320: All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy ...; Question 321: What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC...; Question 322: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many JSON objects are re...; Question 323: Which IPsec encryption mode is appropriate when the destinat...; Question 324: Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless ...; Question 325: Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address ra...; Question 326: What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation ...; Question 327: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) SW1 supports connectivity fo...; Question 328: How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi c...; Question 329: (Exhibit); Question 330: What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? ...; Question 331: Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the le...; Question 332: Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi...; Question 333: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration establis...; Question 334: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Which action do the switches tak...; Question 335: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit)...; Question 336: Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left ...; Question 337: A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router wit...; Question 338: Which is a fact related to FTP?...; Question 339: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which type of configuration ...; Question 340: Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup ...; Question 341: Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets ...; Question 342: A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is rem...; Question 343: Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in presha...; Question 344: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration must be appl...; Question 345: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which outcome is expected wh...; Question 346: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator must...; Question 347: It work security team noticed that an increasing number of e...; Question 348: An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and p...; Question 349: What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network route...; Question 350: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network engineer is conf...; Question 351: Which type of address is shared by routers in a HSRP impleme...; Question 352: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer deploys a topolo...; Question 353: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is represented beginnin...; Question 354: An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected t...; Question 355: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 356: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What must be configured to e...; Question 357: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator must...; Question 358: A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacen...; Question 359: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An enginee...; Question 360: What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?...; Question 361: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which type of route does R1 ...; Question 362: Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediat...; Question 363: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Based on the LACP neighbor s...; Question 364: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The given Windows PC is requ...; Question 365: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How does router R1 handle tr...; Question 366: What is the function of northbound API?...; Question 367: A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor ne...; Question 368: Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with ...; Question 369: Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choo...; Question 370: What provides centralized control of authentication and roam...; Question 371: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer executes ...; Question 372: What describes the operation of virtual machines?...; Question 373: What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless en...; Question 374: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An architect is managing a w...; Question 375: Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentic...; Question 376: What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)...; Question 377: Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the corre...; Question 378: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer configure...; Question 379: What criteria is used first during the root port selection p...; Question 380: Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by...; Question 381: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) To which device does Router1...; Question 382: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network administrator wa...; Question 383: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. What i...; Question 384: What is a DHCP client?; Question 385: Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking ...; Question 386: Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is...; Question 387: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the effect of this c...; Question 388: What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?...; Question 389: Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?...; Question 390: What are two features of the DHCP relay agent? (Choose two.)...; Question 391: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How must OSPF be configured ...; Question 392: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The Router1 routing table ha...; Question 393: Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left...; Question 394: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two values does router...; Question 395: In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance ...; Question 396: Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to genera...; Question 397: Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descripti...; Question 398: Which API is used in controller-based architectures to inter...; Question 399: What are two purposes of HSRP? (Choose two.)...; Question 400: Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the des...; Question 401: Which type of hypervisor operates without an underlying OS t...; Question 402: An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication be...; Question 403: Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is en...; Question 404: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What action establishes the ...; Question 405: Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch usi...; Question 406: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the subnet mask for ...; Question 407: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator is tasked w...; Question 408: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Wireless LAN access must be ...; Question 409: Refer to the exhibit. A multivendor network exists and the c...; Question 410: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator assu...; Question 411: A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on t...; Question 412: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 413: If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, whic...; Question 414: Company has decided to require multifactor authentication fo...; Question 415: Which device tracks the state of active connections in order...; Question 416: Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?...; Question 417: What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional netwo...; Question 418: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Users on existing VLAN 100 c...; Question 419: How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliabilit...; Question 420: What does WPA3 provide in wireless networking?...; Question 421: What is an enhancement implemented in WPA3?...; Question 422: What is the role of community strings in SNMP operations?...; Question 423: Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the...; Question 424: Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses f...

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