PMI-100 Exam Dumps | A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder.

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Question 6/318

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

A. Project team building.

B. Quality assurance.

C. A stakeholder management plan.

D. Integrated change control.

Question List (318q): Question 1: Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as...; Question 2: Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?...; Question 3: Market conditions and published commercial information are e...; Question 4: Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual pro...; Question 5: Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?...; Question 6: A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable...; Question 7: Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resourc...; Question 8: What scope definition technique is used to generate differen...; Question 9: Which tool is used to develop technical details within the p...; Question 10: Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide serv...; Question 11: Which organizational process assets update is performed duri...; Question 12: Which document describes the necessary information to determ...; Question 13: Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in ...; Question 14: What is the responsibility of the project manager andthe fun...; Question 15: In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool a...; Question 16: Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?...; Question 17: Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates ad...; Question 18: The Create WBS process is in which of the following Project ...; Question 19: Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organ...; Question 20: The process of identifying and documenting project roles, re...; Question 21: The risk management team of a software project has decided t...; Question 22: Co-location is a tool and technique of:...; Question 23: When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amoun...; Question 24: The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and...; Question 25: Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the d...; Question 26: A project manager who communicates to the project team thoug...; Question 27: Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique th...; Question 28: Change requests, project management plan updates, project do...; Question 29: What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identifi...; Question 30: Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project ...; Question 31: A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strat...; Question 32: The only Process Group that comprises processes that typical...; Question 33: Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions t...; Question 34: How is quality control performed?...; Question 35: Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks...; Question 36: An element of the modern quality management approach used to...; Question 37: A regression line is used to estimate:...; Question 38: Which processrequires implementation of approved changes?...; Question 39: What are the components of the "triple constraint"?...; Question 40: Which action is included in the Control Costs process?...; Question 41: What tool and technique is used to determine whether work an...; Question 42: The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depen...; Question 43: Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up est...; Question 44: What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition o...; Question 45: An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:...; Question 46: An imposed date for completion of the project by the custome...; Question 47: Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select ...; Question 48: The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is...; Question 49: Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the De...; Question 50: Who is responsible for developing the project management pla...; Question 51: Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes require...; Question 52: A reward can only be effective if it is:...; Question 53: What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized...; Question 54: Which is an enterprise environmental factor?...; Question 55: Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?...; Question 56: The formal and informal interaction with others in an organi...; Question 57: Budgets reserved for unplanned changes to project scope and ...; Question 58: Which of the following helps to ensure thateach requirement ...; Question 59: An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:...; Question 60: An associate who calculates fees daily to support the depart...; Question 61: Which of the following is an information gathering technique...; Question 62: Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Response...; Question 63: Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process all...; Question 64: Tools and techniques usedfor Plan Communications include the...; Question 65: Which items are components of a project management plan?...; Question 66: The traditional organization chart structure that can be use...; Question 67: To please the customer, a project team member delivers a req...; Question 68: An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:...; Question 69: Which schedule development technique modifies the project sc...; Question 70: A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope sta...; Question 71: Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides in...; Question 72: Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?...; Question 73: Which of the following is a schematic display of the project...; Question 74: A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project ...; Question 75: Cost variance (CV) is equal to earned value:...; Question 76: Which of the following is a schedule network analysis techni...; Question 77: When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?...; Question 78: Which of the following is an example of schedule compression...; Question 79: Which of the following are an enterprise environmental facto...; Question 80: Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of S...; Question 81: An output of the Create WBS process is:...; Question 82: Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?...; Question 83: Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time orderi...; Question 84: A project charter is an output of which Process Group?...; Question 85: Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?...; Question 86: A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles b...; Question 87: Which of following could be organizational process assets?...; Question 88: Which process involves identifying and documenting the logic...; Question 89: The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?...; Question 90: The definition of operations is a/an:...; Question 91: Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activi...; Question 92: A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a projec...; Question 93: Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance I...; Question 94: The Closing Process Group includes which of the following Kn...; Question 95: The following is a network diagram for a project. (Exhibit) ...; Question 96: The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in...; Question 97: What is the total float of the critical path?...; Question 98: Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponin...; Question 99: Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?...; Question 100: Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for d...; Question 101: The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined b...; Question 102: Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these pha...; Question 103: Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templ...; Question 104: Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and ...; Question 105: Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Ch...; Question 106: Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the...; Question 107: Who is responsible for determining which processesfrom the P...; Question 108: The cost performance baseline is typically displayed in the ...; Question 109: Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-p...; Question 110: Which process group contains the processes performed to fina...; Question 111: What's budget?; Question 112: What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?...; Question 113: Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members...; Question 114: Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organiza...; Question 115: An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or...; Question 116: In complex projects/ initiating processes should be complete...; Question 117: When should quality planning be performed?...; Question 118: Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?...; Question 119: Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoret...; Question 120: Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Man...; Question 121: Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:...; Question 122: Which of the following Project Communication Management proc...; Question 123: Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the...; Question 124: Which tool and technique of quality planning involves compar...; Question 125: When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product ...; Question 126: The links between the processes in the Process Groups are of...; Question 127: How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value ...; Question 128: Which stakeholder communicates with higher levels of managem...; Question 129: Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change C...; Question 130: What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?...; Question 131: Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of retur...; Question 132: The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or ac...; Question 133: Which stakeholder approves a project's result?...; Question 134: Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Mana...; Question 135: Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:...; Question 136: Which process involves developing an approximation of the mo...; Question 137: Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrate...; Question 138: A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other...; Question 139: Which of the following consists of the detailed project scop...; Question 140: Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of ex...; Question 141: Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creati...; Question 142: The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration ...; Question 143: Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Inform...; Question 144: Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition?...; Question 145: Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an in...; Question 146: Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be...; Question 147: Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during...; Question 148: During which process group is the quality policy determined?...; Question 149: Change request status updates are an output of which process...; Question 150: The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in whic...; Question 151: Which schedule development tool and technique produces a the...; Question 152: Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a p...; Question 153: What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is ...; Question 154: When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF ...; Question 155: Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost...; Question 156: Status of deliverables, implementation status for change req...; Question 157: How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and...; Question 158: Which quality planning tools and techniques are used to visu...; Question 159: The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500. What is the actual...; Question 160: The following is a network diagram for a project. (Exhibit) ...; Question 161: Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements proce...; Question 162: What are the five Project Management Process Groups?...; Question 163: Organizational process assets can be divided into which of t...; Question 164: An output of the Validate Scope process is:...; Question 165: A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks....; Question 166: Inputs to the Define Activitiesprocess include:...; Question 167: When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done whi...; Question 168: The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned va...; Question 169: What entity is assigned various responsibilities related to ...; Question 170: In which type of organizational structure are staff members ...; Question 171: A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other typ...; Question 172: Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?...; Question 173: When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensure...; Question 174: Which of the following processes are part of the Project Int...; Question 175: Which is an example of Administer Procurements?...; Question 176: Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks...; Question 177: The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in th...; Question 178: An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work processis:...; Question 179: Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbur...; Question 180: Which of the following methods of performance reviewexamines...; Question 181: Which of the following lists contain processes that are incl...; Question 182: Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the m...; Question 183: Which of the following are the components of the scope basel...; Question 184: Which action should a project manager take to ensure that th...; Question 185: The process of monitoring the statusof the project to update...; Question 186: Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder...; Question 187: An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:...; Question 188: The product scope description is used to:...; Question 189: Which of the following processes audits the quality requirem...; Question 190: An input to the Identify Risks process is the:...; Question 191: An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a fa...; Question 192: A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make ...; Question 193: Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter...; Question 194: A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter pro...; Question 195: Which Process Group contains those processes performed to de...; Question 196: Ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioriti...; Question 197: In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans deter...; Question 198: The following chart contains information about the tasks in ...; Question 199: Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Ch...; Question 200: Which input will be used when tasked with developing the hum...; Question 201: Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques ...; Question 202: Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown struct...; Question 203: Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of th...; Question 204: Which of the following are documented directions to perform ...; Question 205: Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?...; Question 206: Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:...; Question 207: Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities...; Question 208: Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as akey project:...; Question 209: "Tailoring" is defined as the:; Question 210: As the project progresses, which of the following is routine...; Question 211: Skills necessary for project management such as motivating t...; Question 212: What are assigned risk ratings based upon?...; Question 213: The progressive detailing of the project management plan is ...; Question 214: Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or...; Question 215: Which of the following is a complete set of indexed contract...; Question 216: What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 po...; Question 217: A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by prov...; Question 218: What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?...; Question 219: Which of the following statements best describes the influen...; Question 220: Team performance assessments is an output of which of the fo...; Question 221: An output of the Develop Project Team process is:...; Question 222: Which of the following events would result in a baseline upd...; Question 223: Which type of analysisis used to determine the cause and deg...; Question 224: Configuration identification, configuration status accountin...; Question 225: Which of the following is the process of identifying the spe...; Question 226: A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that i...; Question 227: Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management...; Question 228: Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantita...; Question 229: Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project ...; Question 230: Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify...; Question 231: The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs b...; Question 232: Which input to CollectRequirements is used to identify stake...; Question 233: The following chart contains information about the tasks in ...; Question 234: A primary function of a project management office is to supp...; Question 235: Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques ...; Question 236: The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained i...; Question 237: The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic ...; Question 238: Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications...; Question 239: What is the name of a graphic display of project team member...; Question 240: Whichof the following is an output of the Plan Quality proce...; Question 241: Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carrie...; Question 242: Project deliverables that have been completed and checked fo...; Question 243: When is a project finished?; Question 244: Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Sc...; Question 245: Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge o...; Question 246: Overlooking negative stakeholders can result in a/an:...; Question 247: The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual...; Question 248: Which Define Activities output extends the description of th...; Question 249: Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysi...; Question 250: Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project...; Question 251: The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization o...; Question 252: A process is defined as:; Question 253: A risk may be graded into different priorities by which proc...; Question 254: A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team...; Question 255: Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to...; Question 256: What process determines which risks might affect the project...; Question 257: In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment ...; Question 258: An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:...; Question 259: Projects can intersect with an organization's operations at ...; Question 260: Which of the following involves making information available...; Question 261: Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is ...; Question 262: Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to ...; Question 263: While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collec...; Question 264: The output that defines an approach to increase the support ...; Question 265: A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) a...; Question 266: Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 princi...; Question 267: Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Proj...; Question 268: What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposit...; Question 269: Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities pro...; Question 270: The Project Management Process Group in which performance is...; Question 271: Which process is conducted from project inception through co...; Question 272: What is the difference between the critical path and the cri...; Question 273: Which of the following is a means of reaching a group decisi...; Question 274: Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which ofthe f...; Question 275: Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve an...; Question 276: Which process includesprioritizing risks for subsequent furt...; Question 277: When does risk monitoring and control occur?...; Question 278: A project management office manages a number of aspects incl...; Question 279: Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursab...; Question 280: Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all p...; Question 281: Which of the following types of a dependency determination i...; Question 282: Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of...; Question 283: Outputs of the Control Communications process include:...; Question 284: In which Project Management Process Group is the project cha...; Question 285: While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basi...; Question 286: Which of the following is an output of the Information Distr...; Question 287: An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Man...; Question 288: Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?...; Question 289: The process of identifying and documenting relationships amo...; Question 290: Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate differe...; Question 291: The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. As...; Question 292: What is the tool and technique used to request seller respon...; Question 293: In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:...; Question 294: What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?...; Question 295: Which group is formally chartered and responsible for review...; Question 296: Quality metrics are an output of which process?...; Question 297: A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are...; Question 298: Which standard examines an enterprise's project management p...; Question 299: The definition of when and how often the risk management pro...; Question 300: At which stage of team development do members begin to work ...; Question 301: Through whom do project managers accomplish work?...; Question 302: Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, histori...; Question 303: The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:...; Question 304: Which of the following is a statistical concept that calcula...; Question 305: A project manager needs to deliver the project 2 weeks befor...; Question 306: A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements pr...; Question 307: The iterative process of increasing thelevel of detail in a ...; Question 308: Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identi...; Question 309: The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan u...; Question 310: The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to...; Question 311: Cost baseline is an output of which of the following process...; Question 312: What do composite organizations involve?...; Question 313: Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling P...; Question 314: Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the V...; Question 315: Which of the Project Time Management processes analyzes acti...; Question 316: Types of internal failure costs include:...; Question 317: A project manager providing information to the right audienc...; Question 318: Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk A...

Question 6/318

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