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Exam Code:	PMI-100
Exam Name:	Project Management Professional v5
Certification Provider:	PMI
Free Question Number:	318
Version:	v2021-09-11
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# of Questions views:	34831
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Exam Question List: Question 1: Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as...; Question 2: Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?...; Question 3: Market conditions and published commercial information are e...; Question 4: Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual pro...; Question 5: Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?...; Question 6: A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable...; Question 7: Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resourc...; Question 8: What scope definition technique is used to generate differen...; Question 9: Which tool is used to develop technical details within the p...; Question 10: Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide serv...; Question 11: Which organizational process assets update is performed duri...; Question 12: Which document describes the necessary information to determ...; Question 13: Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in ...; Question 14: What is the responsibility of the project manager andthe fun...; Question 15: In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool a...; Question 16: Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?...; Question 17: Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates ad...; Question 18: The Create WBS process is in which of the following Project ...; Question 19: Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organ...; Question 20: The process of identifying and documenting project roles, re...; Question 21: The risk management team of a software project has decided t...; Question 22: Co-location is a tool and technique of:...; Question 23: When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amoun...; Question 24: The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and...; Question 25: Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the d...; Question 26: A project manager who communicates to the project team thoug...; Question 27: Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique th...; Question 28: Change requests, project management plan updates, project do...; Question 29: What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identifi...; Question 30: Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project ...; Question 31: A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strat...; Question 32: The only Process Group that comprises processes that typical...; Question 33: Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions t...; Question 34: How is quality control performed?...; Question 35: Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks...; Question 36: An element of the modern quality management approach used to...; Question 37: A regression line is used to estimate:...; Question 38: Which processrequires implementation of approved changes?...; Question 39: What are the components of the "triple constraint"?...; Question 40: Which action is included in the Control Costs process?...; Question 41: What tool and technique is used to determine whether work an...; Question 42: The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depen...; Question 43: Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up est...; Question 44: What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition o...; Question 45: An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:...; Question 46: An imposed date for completion of the project by the custome...; Question 47: Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select ...; Question 48: The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is...; Question 49: Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the De...; Question 50: Who is responsible for developing the project management pla...; Question 51: Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes require...; Question 52: A reward can only be effective if it is:...; Question 53: What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized...; Question 54: Which is an enterprise environmental factor?...; Question 55: Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?...; Question 56: The formal and informal interaction with others in an organi...; Question 57: Budgets reserved for unplanned changes to project scope and ...; Question 58: Which of the following helps to ensure thateach requirement ...; Question 59: An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:...; Question 60: An associate who calculates fees daily to support the depart...; Question 61: Which of the following is an information gathering technique...; Question 62: Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Response...; Question 63: Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process all...; Question 64: Tools and techniques usedfor Plan Communications include the...; Question 65: Which items are components of a project management plan?...; Question 66: The traditional organization chart structure that can be use...; Question 67: To please the customer, a project team member delivers a req...; Question 68: An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:...; Question 69: Which schedule development technique modifies the project sc...; Question 70: A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope sta...; Question 71: Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides in...; Question 72: Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?...; Question 73: Which of the following is a schematic display of the project...; Question 74: A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project ...; Question 75: Cost variance (CV) is equal to earned value:...; Question 76: Which of the following is a schedule network analysis techni...; Question 77: When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?...; Question 78: Which of the following is an example of schedule compression...; Question 79: Which of the following are an enterprise environmental facto...; Question 80: Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of S...; Question 81: An output of the Create WBS process is:...; Question 82: Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?...; Question 83: Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time orderi...; Question 84: A project charter is an output of which Process Group?...; Question 85: Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?...; Question 86: A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles b...; Question 87: Which of following could be organizational process assets?...; Question 88: Which process involves identifying and documenting the logic...; Question 89: The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?...; Question 90: The definition of operations is a/an:...; Question 91: Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activi...; Question 92: A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a projec...; Question 93: Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance I...; Question 94: The Closing Process Group includes which of the following Kn...; Question 95: The following is a network diagram for a project. (Exhibit) ...; Question 96: The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in...; Question 97: What is the total float of the critical path?...; Question 98: Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponin...; Question 99: Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?...; Question 100: Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for d...; Question 101: The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined b...; Question 102: Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these pha...; Question 103: Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templ...; Question 104: Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and ...; Question 105: Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Ch...; Question 106: Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the...; Question 107: Who is responsible for determining which processesfrom the P...; Question 108: The cost performance baseline is typically displayed in the ...; Question 109: Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-p...; Question 110: Which process group contains the processes performed to fina...; Question 111: What's budget?; Question 112: What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?...; Question 113: Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members...; Question 114: Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organiza...; Question 115: An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or...; Question 116: In complex projects/ initiating processes should be complete...; Question 117: When should quality planning be performed?...; Question 118: Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?...; Question 119: Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoret...; Question 120: Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Man...; Question 121: Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:...; Question 122: Which of the following Project Communication Management proc...; Question 123: Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the...; Question 124: Which tool and technique of quality planning involves compar...; Question 125: When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product ...; Question 126: The links between the processes in the Process Groups are of...; Question 127: How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value ...; Question 128: Which stakeholder communicates with higher levels of managem...; Question 129: Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change C...; Question 130: What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?...; Question 131: Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of retur...; Question 132: The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or ac...; Question 133: Which stakeholder approves a project's result?...; Question 134: Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Mana...; Question 135: Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:...; Question 136: Which process involves developing an approximation of the mo...; Question 137: Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrate...; Question 138: A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other...; Question 139: Which of the following consists of the detailed project scop...; Question 140: Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of ex...; Question 141: Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creati...; Question 142: The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration ...; Question 143: Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Inform...; Question 144: Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition?...; Question 145: Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an in...; Question 146: Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be...; Question 147: Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during...; Question 148: During which process group is the quality policy determined?...; Question 149: Change request status updates are an output of which process...; Question 150: The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in whic...; Question 151: Which schedule development tool and technique produces a the...; Question 152: Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a p...; Question 153: What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is ...; Question 154: When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF ...; Question 155: Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost...; Question 156: Status of deliverables, implementation status for change req...; Question 157: How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and...; Question 158: Which quality planning tools and techniques are used to visu...; Question 159: The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500. What is the actual...; Question 160: The following is a network diagram for a project. (Exhibit) ...; Question 161: Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements proce...; Question 162: What are the five Project Management Process Groups?...; Question 163: Organizational process assets can be divided into which of t...; Question 164: An output of the Validate Scope process is:...; Question 165: A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks....; Question 166: Inputs to the Define Activitiesprocess include:...; Question 167: When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done whi...; Question 168: The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned va...; Question 169: What entity is assigned various responsibilities related to ...; Question 170: In which type of organizational structure are staff members ...; Question 171: A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other typ...; Question 172: Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?...; Question 173: When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensure...; Question 174: Which of the following processes are part of the Project Int...; Question 175: Which is an example of Administer Procurements?...; Question 176: Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks...; Question 177: The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in th...; Question 178: An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work processis:...; Question 179: Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbur...; Question 180: Which of the following methods of performance reviewexamines...; Question 181: Which of the following lists contain processes that are incl...; Question 182: Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the m...; Question 183: Which of the following are the components of the scope basel...; Question 184: Which action should a project manager take to ensure that th...; Question 185: The process of monitoring the statusof the project to update...; Question 186: Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder...; Question 187: An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:...; Question 188: The product scope description is used to:...; Question 189: Which of the following processes audits the quality requirem...; Question 190: An input to the Identify Risks process is the:...; Question 191: An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a fa...; Question 192: A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make ...; Question 193: Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter...; Question 194: A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter pro...; Question 195: Which Process Group contains those processes performed to de...; Question 196: Ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioriti...; Question 197: In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans deter...; Question 198: The following chart contains information about the tasks in ...; Question 199: Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Ch...; Question 200: Which input will be used when tasked with developing the hum...; Question 201: Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques ...; Question 202: Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown struct...; Question 203: Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of th...; Question 204: Which of the following are documented directions to perform ...; Question 205: Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?...; Question 206: Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:...; Question 207: Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities...; Question 208: Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as akey project:...; Question 209: "Tailoring" is defined as the:; Question 210: As the project progresses, which of the following is routine...; Question 211: Skills necessary for project management such as motivating t...; Question 212: What are assigned risk ratings based upon?...; Question 213: The progressive detailing of the project management plan is ...; Question 214: Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or...; Question 215: Which of the following is a complete set of indexed contract...; Question 216: What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 po...; Question 217: A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by prov...; Question 218: What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?...; Question 219: Which of the following statements best describes the influen...; Question 220: Team performance assessments is an output of which of the fo...; Question 221: An output of the Develop Project Team process is:...; Question 222: Which of the following events would result in a baseline upd...; Question 223: Which type of analysisis used to determine the cause and deg...; Question 224: Configuration identification, configuration status accountin...; Question 225: Which of the following is the process of identifying the spe...; Question 226: A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that i...; Question 227: Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management...; Question 228: Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantita...; Question 229: Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project ...; Question 230: Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify...; Question 231: The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs b...; Question 232: Which input to CollectRequirements is used to identify stake...; Question 233: The following chart contains information about the tasks in ...; Question 234: A primary function of a project management office is to supp...; Question 235: Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques ...; Question 236: The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained i...; Question 237: The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic ...; Question 238: Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications...; Question 239: What is the name of a graphic display of project team member...; Question 240: Whichof the following is an output of the Plan Quality proce...; Question 241: Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carrie...; Question 242: Project deliverables that have been completed and checked fo...; Question 243: When is a project finished?; Question 244: Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Sc...; Question 245: Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge o...; Question 246: Overlooking negative stakeholders can result in a/an:...; Question 247: The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual...; Question 248: Which Define Activities output extends the description of th...; Question 249: Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysi...; Question 250: Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project...; Question 251: The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization o...; Question 252: A process is defined as:; Question 253: A risk may be graded into different priorities by which proc...; Question 254: A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team...; Question 255: Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to...; Question 256: What process determines which risks might affect the project...; Question 257: In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment ...; Question 258: An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:...; Question 259: Projects can intersect with an organization's operations at ...; Question 260: Which of the following involves making information available...; Question 261: Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is ...; Question 262: Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to ...; Question 263: While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collec...; Question 264: The output that defines an approach to increase the support ...; Question 265: A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) a...; Question 266: Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 princi...; Question 267: Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Proj...; Question 268: What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposit...; Question 269: Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities pro...; Question 270: The Project Management Process Group in which performance is...; Question 271: Which process is conducted from project inception through co...; Question 272: What is the difference between the critical path and the cri...; Question 273: Which of the following is a means of reaching a group decisi...; Question 274: Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which ofthe f...; Question 275: Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve an...; Question 276: Which process includesprioritizing risks for subsequent furt...; Question 277: When does risk monitoring and control occur?...; Question 278: A project management office manages a number of aspects incl...; Question 279: Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursab...; Question 280: Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all p...; Question 281: Which of the following types of a dependency determination i...; Question 282: Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of...; Question 283: Outputs of the Control Communications process include:...; Question 284: In which Project Management Process Group is the project cha...; Question 285: While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basi...; Question 286: Which of the following is an output of the Information Distr...; Question 287: An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Man...; Question 288: Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?...; Question 289: The process of identifying and documenting relationships amo...; Question 290: Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate differe...; Question 291: The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. As...; Question 292: What is the tool and technique used to request seller respon...; Question 293: In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:...; Question 294: What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?...; Question 295: Which group is formally chartered and responsible for review...; Question 296: Quality metrics are an output of which process?...; Question 297: A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are...; Question 298: Which standard examines an enterprise's project management p...; Question 299: The definition of when and how often the risk management pro...; Question 300: At which stage of team development do members begin to work ...; Question 301: Through whom do project managers accomplish work?...; Question 302: Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, histori...; Question 303: The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:...; Question 304: Which of the following is a statistical concept that calcula...; Question 305: A project manager needs to deliver the project 2 weeks befor...; Question 306: A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements pr...; Question 307: The iterative process of increasing thelevel of detail in a ...; Question 308: Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identi...; Question 309: The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan u...; Question 310: The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to...; Question 311: Cost baseline is an output of which of the following process...; Question 312: What do composite organizations involve?...; Question 313: Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling P...; Question 314: Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the V...; Question 315: Which of the Project Time Management processes analyzes acti...; Question 316: Types of internal failure costs include:...; Question 317: A project manager providing information to the right audienc...; Question 318: Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk A...

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