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Question 28/202

The gateway VPN feature supports which deployment types?

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Question List (202q)
Question 1: A context box opens when you click on an event icon in the N...
Question 2: Which tool can you use to query the history.db file?...
Question 3: Which feature of the Cisco security appliance provides "who-...
Question 4: An IPS addresses evasion by implementing countermeasures. Wh...
Question 5: What is the default clean disposition cache setting?...
Question 6: A one-to-many type of scan, in which an attacker uses a sing...
Question 7: Which information does the File Trajectory feature show?...
Question 8: Which option is used to implement suppression in the Rule Ma...
Question 9: What is the first system that is infected with a particular ...
Question 10: What must you do to produce ASCII-formatted output from Snor...
Question 11: Which disposition can be returned in response to a malware c...
Question 12: Which Sourcefire feature allows you to send traffic directly...
Question 13: Which interface type allows for bypass mode?...
Question 14: Which area is created between screening devices in an egress...
Question 15: What are the two categories of variables that you can config...
Question 16: Which two advanced malware protection features are available...
Question 17: What does protocol normalization do?...
Question 18: Which statement about implementing DAQ is true?...
Question 19: Cisco Email Security is ideal for which type of customer?...
Question 20: When discussing the FireAMP product, which term does the acr...
Question 21: In a FireAMP Private Cloud installation, which server does a...
Question 22: Remote access to the Defense Center database has which chara...
Question 23: Which option is one of the three methods of updating the IP ...
Question 24: Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time ...
Question 25: Context Explorer can be accessed by a subset of user roles. ...
Question 26: How does application blocking enhance security?...
Question 27: Which three solutions are Cisco Secure Access solutions? (Ch...
Question 28: The gateway VPN feature supports which deployment types?...
Question 29: How do you configure URL filtering?...
Question 30: When a user initiates a scan, which types of scan are availa...
Question 31: FireSIGHT uses three primary types of detection to understan...
Question 32: Which three options describe the main problems with traditio...
Question 33: Which protocol operates below the network layer?...
Question 34: Which three values should you use to position Cisco security...
Question 35: Other than intrusion sensing, which other function set can S...
Question 36: Which statement describes an advantage of the FireAMP produc...
Question 37: Which hosts merit special consideration for crafting a polic...
Question 38: What is the purpose of using a span or monitor port on a swi...
Question 39: Which Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall service restricts w...
Question 40: Consider the process that begins with file retrospection, co...
Question 41: Which option is not a characteristic of dashboard widgets or...
Question 42: On average, how many pieces of new malware are created every...
Question 43: Which component is one of the four primary components of Sno...
Question 44: If Snort is installed and the sensor, database, and web serv...
Question 45: Which two features of Cisco ISE contribute to guest access m...
Question 46: Which Cisco Identity Services Engine feature controls access...
Question 47: Which mechanism should be used to write an IPS rule that foc...
Question 48: Which statement is true when adding a network to an access c...
Question 49: Which statement represents detection capabilities of the HTT...
Question 50: When building a platform for a Snort installation, which set...
Question 51: Which output is in a lightweight, binary form?...
Question 52: Which statement is true regarding malware blocking over HTTP...
Question 53: The current Cisco comprehensive framework solutions are divi...
Question 54: Which preprocessor plays a role in detecting the reconnaissa...
Question 55: Which preprocessor provides a means to measure Snort perform...
Question 56: Which option best describes granular app control using appli...
Question 57: What is the maximum timeout value for a browser session?...
Question 58: Host criticality is an example of which option?...
Question 59: Which Cisco Secure Access solution provides centralized poli...
Question 60: Which option is true regarding the $HOME_NET variable?...
Question 61: Which Cisco IPS feature adapts in real time to detect and bl...
Question 62: Which two solutions are main components of Cisco Content Sec...
Question 63: Which command-line argument can you use with Snort to read a...
Question 64: The Update Window allows you to perform which action?...
Question 65: Which command-line argument can you use with Snort to produc...
Question 66: To execute a command in Linux while in the directory where i...
Question 67: Which preprocessor maintains connection state so that attack...
Question 68: A user discovery agent can be installed on which platform?...
Question 69: On average, email security Outbreak Filters identify and sto...
Question 70: One of the goals of geolocation is to identify which option?...
Question 71: Which option is a remediation module that comes with the Sou...
Question 72: What does the whitelist attribute value "not evaluated" indi...
Question 73: Which syntax correctly expresses a port variable?...
Question 74: Controlling simultaneous connections is a feature of which t...
Question 75: FireSIGHT recommendations appear in which layer of the Polic...
Question 76: In a FireAMP Private Cloud installation, an administrator us...
Question 77: Why do companies need Cisco Cyber Threat Defense?...
Question 78: Which version of libpcap does DAQ require?...
Question 79: To accept input from Snort and produce various forms of outp...
Question 80: What is the main reason that customers need Cisco Secure Acc...
Question 81: Cisco network security offers unmatched visibility and contr...
Question 82: File information is sent to the Sourcefire Collective Securi...
Question 83: The first phase of email security analyzes "who-what-where-w...
Question 84: The FireAMP connector supports which proxy type?...
Question 85: Access control policy rules can be configured to block based...
Question 86: Which interface type allows for VLAN tagging?...
Question 87: Which four solutions are Cisco network security solutions? (...
Question 88: What is the minimum action that you should take when configu...
Question 89: Which action should you perform to enable or disable entire ...
Question 90: Stacking allows a primary device to utilize which resources ...
Question 91: The FireAMP connector monitors the system for which type of ...
Question 92: Which management and analysis tool can you use to enhance a ...
Question 93: Suppose an administrator is configuring an IPS policy and at...
Question 94: The collection of health modules and their settings is known...
Question 95: How many days' worth of data do the widgets on the dashboard...
Question 96: When configuring an LDAP authentication object, which server...
Question 97: Which question should be in your predeployment checklist?...
Question 98: The FireAMP Mobile endpoint connector currently supports whi...
Question 99: Which statement is true in regard to the Sourcefire Security...
Question 100: Barnyard has a mode of operation that reads the most current...
Question 101: Which pair represents equivalent processes whose names diffe...
Question 102: The IP address::/0 is equivalent to which IPv4 address and n...
Question 103: When you instruct Snort to place ASCII-formatted log data in...
Question 104: Which FireAMP capability can tell you how malware has spread...
Question 105: If a file's SHA-256 hash is sent to the cloud, but the cloud...
Question 106: Which type of activity is shown in the Device Trajectory pag...
Question 107: Which option describes the two basic components of Sourcefir...
Question 108: Which integrated technology solution deals with application-...
Question 109: Why do companies need the quickly scalable Cisco Secure Data...
Question 110: Custom whitelists are used for which purpose?...
Question 111: Which set of actions would you take to create a simple custo...
Question 112: A default FireAMP Private Cloud installation can accommodate...
Question 113: Which technique can an intruder use to try to evade detectio...
Question 114: Which output method is the fastest for Snort?...
Question 115: Context Explorer can be accessed by a subset of user roles. ...
Question 116: Which solution is the most effective for virus cleanup?...
Question 117: Which statement about the detection engine configuration set...
Question 118: Which VPN offering removes the need for point-to-point GRE t...
Question 119: Which engine or module presents alert and log data in the fo...
Question 120: When you are viewing information about a computer, what is d...
Question 121: Which event source can have a default workflow configured?...
Question 122: When adding source and destination ports in the Ports tab of...
Question 123: What is the default command-line switch configuration, if yo...
Question 124: Which two features of AMP are available in Cisco AMP for Net...
Question 125: Which statement is true concerning static NAT?...
Question 126: Which feature of content security enables administrators to ...
Question 127: Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five...
Question 128: For which application is Snort output suitable?...
Question 129: Which statement about two-step authentication is true?...
Question 130: On which protocol does Snort focus to decode, process, and a...
Question 131: What does packet sniffing do?
Question 132: Reputation filtering performs which two functions? (Choose t...
Question 133: A Snort sensor is generating many false-positive sfPortscan ...
Question 134: Which option is derived from the discovery component of Fire...
Question 135: Which two features of Cisco AnyConnect contribute to secure ...
Question 136: Which statement describes an advantage of cloud-based detect...
Question 137: Which IPS placement option is the noisiest?...
Question 138: Which component of Cisco network security builds on basic fi...
Question 139: Alert priority is established in which way?...
Question 140: In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the se...
Question 141: Which two add-ons are available for the AnyConnect Premium l...
Question 142: From the Deployment screen, you can deploy agents via which ...
Question 143: Other than navigating to the Network File Trajectory page fo...
Question 144: Which preprocessor can normalize the IIS %u encoding scheme?...
Question 145: The Accounts menu contains items that are related to FireAMP...
Question 146: What does the log_dump output plug-in do?...
Question 147: What is the primary source for Snort rules?...
Question 148: Correlation policy rules allow you to construct criteria for...
Question 149: What is a valid data source for DFC Windows connector policy...
Question 150: How can customers feed new intelligence such as files and ha...
Question 151: Which option is true when configuring an access control rule...
Question 152: For connector-to-FireAMP Private Cloud communication, which ...
Question 153: Which Cisco technology solution can resolve a customer's ina...
Question 154: FireAMP reports can be distributed by which mechanism?...
Question 155: When Snort receives packets, in which order are they placed ...
Question 156: Which two features are components of the Cisco Web Security ...
Question 157: Which two options are benefits of Cisco Application Visibili...
Question 158: In a FireAMP Private Cloud installation, deployed connectors...
Question 159: Which statement regarding user exemptions is true?...
Question 160: Which option describes Spero file analysis?...
Question 161: Which two features are part of site-to-site VPN? (Choose two...
Question 162: Which configuration is optimal for the frag3 engine?...
Question 163: Advanced custom signatures are written using which type of s...
Question 164: If a customer complains that employees access websites for w...
Question 165: Where is the File Fetch context menu option available?...
Question 166: How is the basic construct of a port variable formatted in t...
Question 167: In the Cisco TrustSec "User to Data Center Access Control" u...
Question 168: Which list identifies the possible types of alerts that the ...
Question 169: Which component of Cisco network security is updated after a...
Question 170: In addition to the discovery of new hosts, FireSIGHT can als...
Question 171: Where do you configure widget properties?...
Question 172: Which application can read Barnyard log_pcap output plug-in ...
Question 173: Which statement about the distribution of SO rules is true?...
Question 174: After a user prepares and sends an encrypted message to a re...
Question 175: Which policy controls malware blocking configuration?...
Question 176: Which statement is true when network traffic meets the crite...
Question 177: Which Cisco Secure Access solution should you recommend to a...
Question 178: What is VRT?
Question 179: How does the Device Trajectory feature work?...
Question 180: Which option is a detection technology that is used by FireA...
Question 181: Which item examines packets for malformation, anomalies, and...
Question 182: When you are editing an intrusion policy, how do you know th...
Question 183: Which option is a valid whitelist evaluation value?...
Question 184: Which option represents a configuration step on first use?...
Question 185: Which action can you take from the Detections/Quarantine scr...
Question 186: When configuring FireSIGHT detection, an administrator would...
Question 187: What is the primary reason that customers need content secur...
Question 188: Which statement is true about the Device Trajectory feature?...
Question 189: Which statement about the FTPTelnet preprocessor is true?...
Question 190: Which preprocessor uses a global directive and an engine ins...
Question 191: Which feature allows retrospective detection?...
Question 192: What are two reasons why companies need Cisco Unified Access...
Question 193: Which feature is a primary feature of Cisco AnyConnect?...
Question 194: What is a GID?
Question 195: What does packet latency thresholding measure?...
Question 196: Which statement describes the meaning of a red health status...
Question 197: Which option is true of the Packet Information portion of th...
Question 198: Incident responders use which policy mode for outbreak contr...
Question 199: In the IP addressing scheme of your organization, each subne...
Question 200: Which file is the primary configuration file for keeping rul...
Question 201: Cisco Content Security integrates seamlessly with existing s...
Question 202: Which statement represents a best practice for deploying on ...