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Exam Code:	500-285
Exam Name:	Securing Cisco Networks with Sourcefire Intrusion Prevention System
Certification Provider:	Cisco
Free Question Number:	202
Version:	v2018-03-10
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# of Questions views:	42089
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Exam Question List: Question 1: A context box opens when you click on an event icon in the N...; Question 2: Which tool can you use to query the history.db file?...; Question 3: Which feature of the Cisco security appliance provides "who-...; Question 4: An IPS addresses evasion by implementing countermeasures. Wh...; Question 5: What is the default clean disposition cache setting?...; Question 6: A one-to-many type of scan, in which an attacker uses a sing...; Question 7: Which information does the File Trajectory feature show?...; Question 8: Which option is used to implement suppression in the Rule Ma...; Question 9: What is the first system that is infected with a particular ...; Question 10: What must you do to produce ASCII-formatted output from Snor...; Question 11: Which disposition can be returned in response to a malware c...; Question 12: Which Sourcefire feature allows you to send traffic directly...; Question 13: Which interface type allows for bypass mode?...; Question 14: Which area is created between screening devices in an egress...; Question 15: What are the two categories of variables that you can config...; Question 16: Which two advanced malware protection features are available...; Question 17: What does protocol normalization do?...; Question 18: Which statement about implementing DAQ is true?...; Question 19: Cisco Email Security is ideal for which type of customer?...; Question 20: When discussing the FireAMP product, which term does the acr...; Question 21: In a FireAMP Private Cloud installation, which server does a...; Question 22: Remote access to the Defense Center database has which chara...; Question 23: Which option is one of the three methods of updating the IP ...; Question 24: Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time ...; Question 25: Context Explorer can be accessed by a subset of user roles. ...; Question 26: How does application blocking enhance security?...; Question 27: Which three solutions are Cisco Secure Access solutions? (Ch...; Question 28: The gateway VPN feature supports which deployment types?...; Question 29: How do you configure URL filtering?...; Question 30: When a user initiates a scan, which types of scan are availa...; Question 31: FireSIGHT uses three primary types of detection to understan...; Question 32: Which three options describe the main problems with traditio...; Question 33: Which protocol operates below the network layer?...; Question 34: Which three values should you use to position Cisco security...; Question 35: Other than intrusion sensing, which other function set can S...; Question 36: Which statement describes an advantage of the FireAMP produc...; Question 37: Which hosts merit special consideration for crafting a polic...; Question 38: What is the purpose of using a span or monitor port on a swi...; Question 39: Which Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall service restricts w...; Question 40: Consider the process that begins with file retrospection, co...; Question 41: Which option is not a characteristic of dashboard widgets or...; Question 42: On average, how many pieces of new malware are created every...; Question 43: Which component is one of the four primary components of Sno...; Question 44: If Snort is installed and the sensor, database, and web serv...; Question 45: Which two features of Cisco ISE contribute to guest access m...; Question 46: Which Cisco Identity Services Engine feature controls access...; Question 47: Which mechanism should be used to write an IPS rule that foc...; Question 48: Which statement is true when adding a network to an access c...; Question 49: Which statement represents detection capabilities of the HTT...; Question 50: When building a platform for a Snort installation, which set...; Question 51: Which output is in a lightweight, binary form?...; Question 52: Which statement is true regarding malware blocking over HTTP...; Question 53: The current Cisco comprehensive framework solutions are divi...; Question 54: Which preprocessor plays a role in detecting the reconnaissa...; Question 55: Which preprocessor provides a means to measure Snort perform...; Question 56: Which option best describes granular app control using appli...; Question 57: What is the maximum timeout value for a browser session?...; Question 58: Host criticality is an example of which option?...; Question 59: Which Cisco Secure Access solution provides centralized poli...; Question 60: Which option is true regarding the $HOME_NET variable?...; Question 61: Which Cisco IPS feature adapts in real time to detect and bl...; Question 62: Which two solutions are main components of Cisco Content Sec...; Question 63: Which command-line argument can you use with Snort to read a...; Question 64: The Update Window allows you to perform which action?...; Question 65: Which command-line argument can you use with Snort to produc...; Question 66: To execute a command in Linux while in the directory where i...; Question 67: Which preprocessor maintains connection state so that attack...; Question 68: A user discovery agent can be installed on which platform?...; Question 69: On average, email security Outbreak Filters identify and sto...; Question 70: One of the goals of geolocation is to identify which option?...; Question 71: Which option is a remediation module that comes with the Sou...; Question 72: What does the whitelist attribute value "not evaluated" indi...; Question 73: Which syntax correctly expresses a port variable?...; Question 74: Controlling simultaneous connections is a feature of which t...; Question 75: FireSIGHT recommendations appear in which layer of the Polic...; Question 76: In a FireAMP Private Cloud installation, an administrator us...; Question 77: Why do companies need Cisco Cyber Threat Defense?...; Question 78: Which version of libpcap does DAQ require?...; Question 79: To accept input from Snort and produce various forms of outp...; Question 80: What is the main reason that customers need Cisco Secure Acc...; Question 81: Cisco network security offers unmatched visibility and contr...; Question 82: File information is sent to the Sourcefire Collective Securi...; Question 83: The first phase of email security analyzes "who-what-where-w...; Question 84: The FireAMP connector supports which proxy type?...; Question 85: Access control policy rules can be configured to block based...; Question 86: Which interface type allows for VLAN tagging?...; Question 87: Which four solutions are Cisco network security solutions? (...; Question 88: What is the minimum action that you should take when configu...; Question 89: Which action should you perform to enable or disable entire ...; Question 90: Stacking allows a primary device to utilize which resources ...; Question 91: The FireAMP connector monitors the system for which type of ...; Question 92: Which management and analysis tool can you use to enhance a ...; Question 93: Suppose an administrator is configuring an IPS policy and at...; Question 94: The collection of health modules and their settings is known...; Question 95: How many days' worth of data do the widgets on the dashboard...; Question 96: When configuring an LDAP authentication object, which server...; Question 97: Which question should be in your predeployment checklist?...; Question 98: The FireAMP Mobile endpoint connector currently supports whi...; Question 99: Which statement is true in regard to the Sourcefire Security...; Question 100: Barnyard has a mode of operation that reads the most current...; Question 101: Which pair represents equivalent processes whose names diffe...; Question 102: The IP address::/0 is equivalent to which IPv4 address and n...; Question 103: When you instruct Snort to place ASCII-formatted log data in...; Question 104: Which FireAMP capability can tell you how malware has spread...; Question 105: If a file's SHA-256 hash is sent to the cloud, but the cloud...; Question 106: Which type of activity is shown in the Device Trajectory pag...; Question 107: Which option describes the two basic components of Sourcefir...; Question 108: Which integrated technology solution deals with application-...; Question 109: Why do companies need the quickly scalable Cisco Secure Data...; Question 110: Custom whitelists are used for which purpose?...; Question 111: Which set of actions would you take to create a simple custo...; Question 112: A default FireAMP Private Cloud installation can accommodate...; Question 113: Which technique can an intruder use to try to evade detectio...; Question 114: Which output method is the fastest for Snort?...; Question 115: Context Explorer can be accessed by a subset of user roles. ...; Question 116: Which solution is the most effective for virus cleanup?...; Question 117: Which statement about the detection engine configuration set...; Question 118: Which VPN offering removes the need for point-to-point GRE t...; Question 119: Which engine or module presents alert and log data in the fo...; Question 120: When you are viewing information about a computer, what is d...; Question 121: Which event source can have a default workflow configured?...; Question 122: When adding source and destination ports in the Ports tab of...; Question 123: What is the default command-line switch configuration, if yo...; Question 124: Which two features of AMP are available in Cisco AMP for Net...; Question 125: Which statement is true concerning static NAT?...; Question 126: Which feature of content security enables administrators to ...; Question 127: Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five...; Question 128: For which application is Snort output suitable?...; Question 129: Which statement about two-step authentication is true?...; Question 130: On which protocol does Snort focus to decode, process, and a...; Question 131: What does packet sniffing do?; Question 132: Reputation filtering performs which two functions? (Choose t...; Question 133: A Snort sensor is generating many false-positive sfPortscan ...; Question 134: Which option is derived from the discovery component of Fire...; Question 135: Which two features of Cisco AnyConnect contribute to secure ...; Question 136: Which statement describes an advantage of cloud-based detect...; Question 137: Which IPS placement option is the noisiest?...; Question 138: Which component of Cisco network security builds on basic fi...; Question 139: Alert priority is established in which way?...; Question 140: In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the se...; Question 141: Which two add-ons are available for the AnyConnect Premium l...; Question 142: From the Deployment screen, you can deploy agents via which ...; Question 143: Other than navigating to the Network File Trajectory page fo...; Question 144: Which preprocessor can normalize the IIS %u encoding scheme?...; Question 145: The Accounts menu contains items that are related to FireAMP...; Question 146: What does the log_dump output plug-in do?...; Question 147: What is the primary source for Snort rules?...; Question 148: Correlation policy rules allow you to construct criteria for...; Question 149: What is a valid data source for DFC Windows connector policy...; Question 150: How can customers feed new intelligence such as files and ha...; Question 151: Which option is true when configuring an access control rule...; Question 152: For connector-to-FireAMP Private Cloud communication, which ...; Question 153: Which Cisco technology solution can resolve a customer's ina...; Question 154: FireAMP reports can be distributed by which mechanism?...; Question 155: When Snort receives packets, in which order are they placed ...; Question 156: Which two features are components of the Cisco Web Security ...; Question 157: Which two options are benefits of Cisco Application Visibili...; Question 158: In a FireAMP Private Cloud installation, deployed connectors...; Question 159: Which statement regarding user exemptions is true?...; Question 160: Which option describes Spero file analysis?...; Question 161: Which two features are part of site-to-site VPN? (Choose two...; Question 162: Which configuration is optimal for the frag3 engine?...; Question 163: Advanced custom signatures are written using which type of s...; Question 164: If a customer complains that employees access websites for w...; Question 165: Where is the File Fetch context menu option available?...; Question 166: How is the basic construct of a port variable formatted in t...; Question 167: In the Cisco TrustSec "User to Data Center Access Control" u...; Question 168: Which list identifies the possible types of alerts that the ...; Question 169: Which component of Cisco network security is updated after a...; Question 170: In addition to the discovery of new hosts, FireSIGHT can als...; Question 171: Where do you configure widget properties?...; Question 172: Which application can read Barnyard log_pcap output plug-in ...; Question 173: Which statement about the distribution of SO rules is true?...; Question 174: After a user prepares and sends an encrypted message to a re...; Question 175: Which policy controls malware blocking configuration?...; Question 176: Which statement is true when network traffic meets the crite...; Question 177: Which Cisco Secure Access solution should you recommend to a...; Question 178: What is VRT?; Question 179: How does the Device Trajectory feature work?...; Question 180: Which option is a detection technology that is used by FireA...; Question 181: Which item examines packets for malformation, anomalies, and...; Question 182: When you are editing an intrusion policy, how do you know th...; Question 183: Which option is a valid whitelist evaluation value?...; Question 184: Which option represents a configuration step on first use?...; Question 185: Which action can you take from the Detections/Quarantine scr...; Question 186: When configuring FireSIGHT detection, an administrator would...; Question 187: What is the primary reason that customers need content secur...; Question 188: Which statement is true about the Device Trajectory feature?...; Question 189: Which statement about the FTPTelnet preprocessor is true?...; Question 190: Which preprocessor uses a global directive and an engine ins...; Question 191: Which feature allows retrospective detection?...; Question 192: What are two reasons why companies need Cisco Unified Access...; Question 193: Which feature is a primary feature of Cisco AnyConnect?...; Question 194: What is a GID?; Question 195: What does packet latency thresholding measure?...; Question 196: Which statement describes the meaning of a red health status...; Question 197: Which option is true of the Packet Information portion of th...; Question 198: Incident responders use which policy mode for outbreak contr...; Question 199: In the IP addressing scheme of your organization, each subne...; Question 200: Which file is the primary configuration file for keeping rul...; Question 201: Cisco Content Security integrates seamlessly with existing s...; Question 202: Which statement represents a best practice for deploying on ...

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