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Question 66/106

Which statement is true regarding a Prevention Posture Assessment?

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Question List (106q)
Question 1: An administrator needs to allow users to use their own offic...
Question 2: In which stage of the Cyber-Attack Lifecycle would the attac...
Question 3: A server-admin in the USERS-zone requires SSH-access to all ...
Question 4: Which two security profile types can be attached to a securi...
Question 5: Based on the security policy rules shown, ssh will be allowe...
Question 6: Which two features can be used to tag a user name so that it...
Question 7: Order the steps needed to create a new security zone with a ...
Question 8: Which two statements are correct regarding multiple static d...
Question 9: What is considered best practice with regards to committing ...
Question 10: Based on the screenshot presented which column contains the ...
Question 11: Which type of administrator account cannot be used to authen...
Question 12: Given the scenario, which two statements are correct regardi...
Question 13: Based on the screenshot presented which column contains the ...
Question 14: Users from the internal zone need to be allowed to Telnet in...
Question 15: When creating a Source NAT policy, which entry in the Transl...
Question 16: Arrange the correct order that the URL classifications are p...
Question 17: Which two statements are correct about App-ID content update...
Question 18: Which two settings allow you to restrict access to the manag...
Question 19: Which Security Profile can provide protection against ICMP f...
Question 20: Given the topology, which zone type should zone A and zone B...
Question 21: Given the scenario, which two statements are correct regardi...
Question 22: The firewall sends employees an application block page when ...
Question 23: What are two differences between an implicit dependency and ...
Question 24: Match the Cyber-Attack Lifecycle stage to its correct descri...
Question 25: Which two security profile types can be attached to a securi...
Question 26: Which User-ID mapping method should be used for an environme...
Question 27: Order the steps needed to create a new security zone with a ...
Question 28: Which action related to App-ID updates will enable a securit...
Question 29: Match the Cyber-Attack Lifecycle stage to its correct descri...
Question 30: Which administrator type utilizes predefined roles for a loc...
Question 31: Which data-plane processor layer of the graphic shown provid...
Question 32: How are Application Fillers or Application Groups used in fi...
Question 33: Complete the statement. A security profile can block or allo...
Question 34: Complete the statement. A security profile can block or allo...
Question 35: What must be configured for the firewall to access multiple ...
Question 36: Given the topology, which zone type should interface E1/1 be...
Question 37: Match the network device with the correct User-ID technology...
Question 38: Access to which feature requires the PAN-OS Filtering licens...
Question 39: Which option lists the attributes that are selectable when s...
Question 40: Recently changes were made to the firewall to optimize the p...
Question 41: The CFO found a USB drive in the parking lot and decide to p...
Question 42: An administrator receives a global notification for a new ma...
Question 43: Employees are shown an application block page when they try ...
Question 44: Which two configuration settings shown are not the default? ...
Question 45: Based on the show security policy rule would match all FTP t...
Question 46: An administrator receives a global notification for a new ma...
Question 47: Which firewall plane provides configuration, logging, and re...
Question 48: Which interface does not require a MAC or IP address?...
Question 49: Based on the screenshot what is the purpose of the group in ...
Question 50: In the example security policy shown, which two websites wou...
Question 51: When creating a Source NAT policy, which entry in the Transl...
Question 52: What is the correct process tor creating a custom URL catego...
Question 53: Based on the security policy rules shown, ssh will be allowe...
Question 54: Which action results in the firewall blocking network traffi...
Question 55: Order the steps needed to create a new security zone with a ...
Question 56: In a security policy what I the quickest way to rest all pol...
Question 57: How often does WildFire release dynamic updates?...
Question 58: Which type of profile must be applied to the Security policy...
Question 59: Which administrator type provides more granular options to d...
Question 60: To use Active Directory to authenticate administrators, whic...
Question 61: Match the Cyber-Attack Lifecycle stage to its correct descri...
Question 62: Which type of security rule will match traffic between the I...
Question 63: Arrange the correct order that the URL classifications are p...
Question 64: Which security policy rule would be needed to match traffic ...
Question 65: What must you configure to enable the firewall to access mul...
Question 66: Which statement is true regarding a Prevention Posture Asses...
Question 67: Which type of security rule will match traffic between the I...
Question 68: At which stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle would the attac...
Question 69: How does an administrator schedule an Applications and Threa...
Question 70: In the example security policy shown, which two websites wou...
Question 71: Place the following steps in the packet processing order of ...
Question 72: Which data flow direction is protected in a zero trust firew...
Question 73: Given the screenshot, what are two correct statements about ...
Question 74: Which service protects cloud-based applications such as Drop...
Question 75: Which URL Filtering Profile action does not generate a log e...
Question 76: Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is using DNAT to map ...
Question 77: Which data-plane processor layer of the graphic shown provid...
Question 78: What in the minimum frequency for which you can configure th...
Question 79: Match the network device with the correct User-ID technology...
Question 80: Given the topology, which zone type should zone A and zone B...
Question 81: At which point in the app-ID update process can you determin...
Question 82: What must be configured for the firewall to access multiple ...
Question 83: Match the network device with the correct User-ID technology...
Question 84: Which license must an Administrator acquire prior to downloa...
Question 85: Which file is used to save the running configuration with a ...
Question 86: Based on the screenshot what is the purpose of the included ...
Question 87: Which three configuration settings are required on a Palo Al...
Question 88: Which two configuration settings shown are not the default? ...
Question 89: Match each feature to the DoS Protection Policy or the DoS P...
Question 90: You receive notification about new malware that infects host...
Question 91: Based on the screenshot presented which column contains the ...
Question 92: The firewall sends employees an application block page when ...
Question 93: Arrange the correct order that the URL classifications are p...
Question 94: Based on the graphic which statement accurately describes th...
Question 95: Which two configuration settings shown are not the default? ...
Question 96: In the example security policy shown, which two websites fck...
Question 97: Which User-ID agent would be appropriate in a network with m...
Question 98: Match each feature to the DoS Protection Policy or the DoS P...
Question 99: (Exhibit) Given the topology, which zone type should interfa...
Question 100: A security administrator has configured App-ID updates to be...
Question 101: Given the image, which two options are true about the Securi...
Question 102: Which object would an administrator create to block access t...
Question 103: Complete the statement. A security profile can block or allo...
Question 104: An administrator would like to override the default deny act...
Question 105: An administrator would like to see the traffic that matches ...
Question 106: What is the purpose of the automated commit recovery feature...