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Question 14/100

You create a prepayment for USD l00 and validate it to consume the budget and reduce available funds under the prepayment account. You then pay the prepayment of USD 100 create an invoice for USD 300, and validate the* invoice to consume the budget and reduce available funds for the expense-accounts used in the invoice. You then apply the prepayment fully on to the invoice and revalidate it.
What happens to the available funds when you apply a prepayment that requires budgetary control?

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