CTFL_001 Exam Dumps | Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification

Home
ISQI
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level
ISQI.CTFL_001.v2018-03-01.q200
Question 147

Valid CTFL_001 Dumps shared by ExamDiscuss.com for Helping Passing CTFL_001 Exam! ExamDiscuss.com now offer the newest CTFL_001 exam dumps, the ExamDiscuss.com CTFL_001 exam questions have been updated and answers have been corrected get the newest ExamDiscuss.com CTFL_001 dumps with Test Engine here:

Access CTFL_001 Dumps Premium Version
(340 Q&As Dumps, 35%OFF Special Discount Code: freecram)

<< Prev Question Next Question >>

Question 147/200

Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test
Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]

A. Title. Transaction input screen validation..Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod
1..4 fails . Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entryon screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions - see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

B. Title. End of Day failure.. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached.

C. Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date.. Reproducible. No. Description.
When a future dated transaction is processed by the end of day process, a failure can occur. This does not always happen. Screen shot of the failure attached.

D. Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date. Reproducible. Yes. Description.
Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction.
Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entry on screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions - see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

Correct Answer: D

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Comment: *

Name: *

Email: *

Rating: *

Verification: *

Question List (200q): Question 1: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phas...; Question 2: The cost of fixing a fault:; Question 3: Which of the following is a consideration when deploying tes...; Question 4: Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of te...; Question 5: Which list of levels of tester independence is in the correc...; Question 6: Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test man...; Question 7: A new system is about to be developed. Which of the followin...; Question 8: A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is ...; Question 9: Which of the following describes structure-based (white-box)...; Question 10: What should be the MAIN objective during development testing...; Question 11: What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive te...; Question 12: You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools...; Question 13: Which of the following is a white-box test technique?...; Question 14: What is the purpose of exit criteria?...; Question 15: Which of the following defines the expected result of a test...; Question 16: The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing ap...; Question 17: Which of the following is correct? Debugging is:...; Question 18: In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testin...; Question 19: What can a risk-based approach to testing provide?...; Question 20: Which of the following statements are true? (i) Defects are ...; Question 21: Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for...; Question 22: Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase:...; Question 23: During the development of a software change for a system, th...; Question 24: A test management tool is most likely to integrate with whic...; Question 25: You are considering involving users during test execution. I...; Question 26: In a review meeting a moderator is a person who:...; Question 27: A number of options have been suggested for the level of ind...; Question 28: Which of the following are examples of iterative development...; Question 29: Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test...; Question 30: Which is the best definition of complete testing..?...; Question 31: The purpose of requirement phase is:...; Question 32: Which of the following are aids to good communication, and w...; Question 33: A live defect has been found where a code component fails to...; Question 34: Select THREE issues from the options provided that should at...; 1 commentQuestion 35: Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three t...; Question 36: Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent te...; Question 37: An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004...; Question 38: Which of the following statements about software development...; Question 39: An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of...; Question 40: Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, wo...; Question 41: Which of the following test organizations has the highest le...; Question 42: Which type of review has the following main purposes: discus...; Question 43: Which of the following test cases will ensure that the state...; Question 44: Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choo...; Question 45: Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a diff...; Question 46: Refer to the exhibit The following test cases need to be run...; Question 47: Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision covera...; Question 48: Consider the following pseudo code: 1 . Begin 2 . Input X, Y...; Question 49: Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical sys...; Question 50: Which is not a major task of test implementation and executi...; Question 51: You are examining a document which gives the precise steps n...; Question 52: Functional and structural tests are alternative test types t...; Question 53: IEEE 1028 also defines "management review" as a type of revi...; Question 54: Which of the following accurately defines the integration te...; Question 55: Which of the following is in the correct order (typically)?...; Question 56: Tests are prioritized so that:; Question 57: You have been asked to write a testing strategy for the comp...; Question 58: Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives ...; Question 59: Why is measurement of code coverage Important?...; Question 60: What factors should be considered to determine whether enoug...; Question 61: Which of the following could be a reason for a failure? 1) T...; Question 62: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete test...; Question 63: Which of the following statements contains a valuable object...; Question 64: Instead of having an independent test team within the compan...; Question 65: Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]...; Question 66: Fault Masking is:; Question 67: Which THREE activities would be valid steps during the devel...; Question 68: The business has asked for a weekly progress report. Which o...; Question 69: What are metrics NOT used for?; Question 70: Which of the following is a role of a formal review? [K1]...; Question 71: Independent Verification & Validation is:...; Question 72: From the following list, which of the following apply to exp...; Question 73: During which test activity could faults be found most cost e...; Question 74: The development manager is managing the review of the respon...; Question 75: Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (mos...; Question 76: Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:...; Question 77: Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, se...; Question 78: Which of the following statements are TRUE? A: Regression te...; Question 79: When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?...; Question 80: What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing...; Question 81: Which of the following is a valid reason for writing test ca...; Question 82: What content would be in an incident report if that incident...; Question 83: Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply...; Question 84: How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible ...; Question 85: For which of the following activities in the fundamental tes...; Question 86: In addition to introducing the new team member, you have dec...; Question 87: As a result of the RAD based development approach, the test ...; Question 88: Which from the following list are typically found to enable ...; Question 89: Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance te...; Question 90: "How much testing is enough?"; Question 91: Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regard...; Question 92: Which of the following statements about use-case testing are...; Question 93: Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropri...; Question 94: Which of the following characteristics is most likely to pro...; Question 95: A client-server system for a web development must support a ...; Question 96: Acceptance test cases are based on what?...; Question 97: A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced ...; Question 98: Which statement is most true?; Question 99: A test assessment has been carried out using the selected mo...; Question 100: Regarding the process described above, what is the most impo...; Question 101: Which of the following would you expect to see in the master...; Question 102: During which stage of the fundamental test process is the te...; Question 103: The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requireme...; Question 104: When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which ...; Question 105: Risks should be constantly reviewed. Given the current situa...; Question 106: The test improvement project will take place in an organizat...; Question 107: Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing i...; Question 108: Faults found by users are due to..?...; Question 109: What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive te...; Question 110: Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit ...; Question 111: Considerable attention will be given in this project to defi...; Question 112: Which of the following is most likely to be performed by dev...; Question 113: A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and...; Question 114: What is the benefit of independent testing?...; Question 115: What other details should be included in the following incid...; Question 116: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or...; Question 117: During test process improvement it is recommended to use sta...; Question 118: When an organization considers the use of testing tools, the...; Question 119: What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introdu...; Question 120: Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step you...; Question 121: Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing?...; Question 122: A system is designed to accept values of examination marks a...; Question 123: Which one of the following statements about testing techniqu...; Question 124: Which of the following are most characteristic of structure-...; Question 125: A test case starts at S1 and triggers 4 events in sequence: ...; Question 126: Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]...; Question 127: Which of these are objectives for software testing?...; Question 128: (Exhibit) In the above State Table, which of the following r...; Question 129: Which of the following product risks would be most effective...; Question 130: The purpose of exit criteria is:...; Question 131: Which statement correctly describes the public and professio...; Question 132: Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to...; Question 133: Why is independent testing important? [K1]...; Question 134: Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]...; Question 135: Which of the following is true of iterative development?...; Question 136: A top-down development strategy affects which level of testi...; Question 137: Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as..?...; Question 138: Testing effort can depend on a number of factors, which one ...; Question 139: What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?...; Question 140: (Exhibit) The decision table above reflects a golf club's pr...; Question 141: What benefits do static analysis tools have over test execut...; Question 142: A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares acc...; Question 143: In a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid...; Question 144: Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process...; Question 145: The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which ...; Question 146: Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as...; Question 147: Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via sc...; Question 148: Which pair of definitions is correct?...; Question 149: Boundary value testing:; Question 150: Which of the following are the most important factors to be ...; Question 151: Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the fol...; Question 152: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test pl...; Question 153: Which of the following are valid justifications for develope...; Question 154: Pick the best definition of quality:...; Question 155: Which of the following pairs of test tools are likely to be ...; Question 156: Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how...; Question 157: Consider the following pseudo code 1 . Begin 2 . Read Gender...; Question 158: Which of the following best describes the Black-box techniqu...; Question 159: Which of the following comparisons of component testing and ...; Question 160: What is a test condition?; Question 161: Typically, exit criteria may consist of:...; Question 162: What is static analysis?; Question 163: Which of the following are the typical defects found by stat...; Question 164: You are about to release a test progress report to a senior ...; Question 165: Which one of the following roles is typically used in a revi...; Question 166: How does software testing contribute to the quality of deliv...; Question 167: Which of the following statements best characterises mainten...; Question 168: Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous quest...; Question 169: Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically...; Question 170: What type of test design technique is the most effective in ...; Question 171: Which of the following BEST describes the relationship betwe...; Question 172: Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'...; Question 173: Which of the following processes ensures that all items of t...; Question 174: Which of the following would typically be identified using s...; Question 175: A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be a...; Question 176: Failure is _________; Question 177: According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is requi...; Question 178: Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be...; Question 179: Which of the following would be the most significant input t...; Question 180: Incidents would not be raised against...; Question 181: Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase...; Question 182: When assembling a test team to work on an enhancement to an ...; Question 183: Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan ...; Question 184: The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:...; Question 185: One of the roles in a review is that of moderator, which of ...; Question 186: Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the ...; Question 187: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any re...; Question 188: Which of the following statements describes a key principle ...; Question 189: In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a test...; Question 190: Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor prog...; Question 191: Which of the following options explain why it is often benef...; Question 192: Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the ...; Question 193: Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?...; Question 194: In general which part of the testing activity is most diffic...; Question 195: Which of the following is the main purpose of the component ...; Question 196: Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:...; Question 197: As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will b...; Question 198: Which of the following is the odd one out..?...; Question 199: Which of the following statements about risks is most accura...; Question 200: Which of the following is a structure-based (white-box) tech...

[×]

Download PDF File

Enter your email address to download ISQI.CTFL_001.v2018-03-01.q200.pdf

Email:

Disclaimer:
Freecram doesn't offer Real GIAC Exam Questions. Freecram doesn't offer Real SAP Exam Questions. Freecram doesn't offer Real (ISC)² Exam Questions. Freecram doesn't offer Real CompTIA Exam Questions. Freecram doesn't offer Real Microsoft Exam Questions.
Oracle and Java are registered trademarks of Oracle and/or its affiliates.
Freecram material do not contain actual actual Oracle Exam Questions or material.
Microsoft®, Azure®, Windows®, Windows Vista®, and the Windows logo are registered trademarks of Microsoft Corporation.
Freecram Materials do not contain actual questions and answers from Cisco's Certification Exams. The brand Cisco is a registered trademark of CISCO, Inc.
CFA Institute does not endorse, promote or warrant the accuracy or quality of these questions. CFA® and Chartered Financial Analyst® are registered trademarks owned by CFA Institute.
Freecram does not offer exam dumps or questions from actual exams. We offer learning material and practice tests created by subject matter experts to assist and help learners prepare for those exams. All certification brands used on the website are owned by the respective brand owners. Freecram does not own or claim any ownership on any of the brands.

Question 147/200

LEAVE A REPLY

Download PDF File