A security analyst needs to develop a solution to protect a high-value asset from an exploit like a recent zero-day attack. Which of the following best describes this risk management strategy?
Correct Answer: D
Comprehensive Detailed The best approach to address the risk of a zero-day attack is mitigation. Here's an explanation of each option:
A . Avoid
Avoiding risk would mean discontinuing the use of the asset, which is not feasible for high-value assets that are essential to operations.
B . Transfer
Transferring risk would involve outsourcing or obtaining insurance, but this does not directly reduce the threat of a zero-day exploit.
C . Accept
Accepting the risk means acknowledging it without implementing countermeasures, which is not advisable for high-value assets at risk from sophisticated attacks.
D . Mitigate
Mitigation involves implementing technical or administrative controls to reduce the impact of an attack. For zero-day exploits, this could include installing network-based protections, enhancing monitoring, or applying threat intelligence to detect or contain potential exploit attempts.
Reference:
NIST SP 800-30: Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments.
OWASP Risk Rating Methodology: Techniques for assessing and mitigating security risks.