350-701 Exam Dumps | An organization wants to secure data in a cloud environment. Its security model requires that all users

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Question 68/413

An organization wants to secure data in a cloud environment. Its security model requires that all users be authenticated and authorized. Security configuration and posture must be continuously validated before access is granted or maintained to applications and data. There is also a need to allow certain application traffic and deny all other traffic by default. Which technology must be used to implement these requirements?

A. virtual routing and forwarding

B. microsegmentation

C. access control policy

D. virtual LAN

Question List (413q): Question 1: Which two global commands must the network administrator imp...; Question 2: Refer to the exhibit. What does the access control rule that...; Question 3: An administrator configures a Cisco WSA to receive redirecte...; Question 4: Which benefit is provided by ensuring that an endpoint is co...; Question 5: A security engineer must add destinations into a destination...; Question 6: What is the difference between a vulnerability and an exploi...; Question 7: Refer to the exhibit. 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(Choose two.)...; Question 20: What must be configured in Cisco ISE to enforce reauthentica...; Question 21: Why is it important to implement MFA inside of an organizati...; Question 22: Which common threat can be prevented by implementing port se...; Question 23: A network administrator is shipping a Cisco ASA to a remote ...; Question 24: What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connect...; Question 25: An engineer must implement a solution with these requirement...; Question 26: Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the concepts from the l...; Question 27: When an assessment of cloud services and applications is con...; Question 28: Which two actions does the Cisco Identity Services Engine po...; Question 29: A network engineer needs to select a VPN type that provides ...; Question 30: A network administrator is configuring SNMPv3 on a new route...; Question 31: Refer to the exhibit. What will occur when this device tries...; Question 32: An organization wants to reduce their attach surface for clo...; Question 33: Which network technology does Cisco Next-Generation Firewall...; Question 34: Which security mechanism is designed to protect against "off...; Question 35: What is a difference between an EPP solution and an EDR solu...; Question 36: Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection a...; Question 37: Which feature enables a Cisco ISR to use the default bypass ...; Question 38: In an IaaS cloud services model, which security function is ...; Question 39: What is a benefit of using a multifactor authentication stra...; Question 40: Which Cisco AMP file disposition valid?...; Question 41: Which feature of Cisco ASA allows VPN users to be postured a...; Question 42: Why should organizations migrate to an MFA strategy for auth...; Question 43: Which MDM configuration provides scalability?...; Question 44: Which solution allows an administrator to provision, monitor...; Question 45: Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connec...; Question 46: Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)...; Question 47: What is a capability of Cisco Talos?...; Question 48: An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to ensure end...; Question 49: A website administrator wants to prevent SQL injection attac...; Question 50: Which Cisco Secure Endpoint for Email Security capability pr...; Question 51: Which problem Is solved by deploying a multicontext firewall...; Question 52: An engineer needs to add protection for data in transit and ...; Question 53: Refer to the exhibit. A security engineer must create a new ...; Question 54: Refer to the exhibit. 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(Choose two.)...; Question 66: An organization wants to secure users, data, and application...; Question 67: A company deploys an application that contains confidential ...; Question 68: An organization wants to secure data in a cloud environment....; Question 69: An organization plans to upgrade its current email security ...; Question 70: What is a difference between DMVPN and sVTI?...; Question 71: Which two methods are available in Cisco Secure Web Applianc...; Question 72: Which two activities are performed using Cisco DNA Center? (...; Question 73: What are two rootkit types? 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What is the function of the Python scr...; Question 91: Which two VPN tunneling protocols support the use of IPsec t...; Question 92: A network engineer must use the Cisco DNA Center API to crea...; Question 93: Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against ...; Question 94: A network engineer must establish a site-to-site VPN between...; Question 95: Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the features of Cisco A...; Question 96: An engineer must establish and maintain the redirection of s...; Question 97: An engineer is configuring a new destination list for Cisco ...; Question 98: Drag and Drop Question A network engineer must configure a C...; Question 99: An engineer needs behavioral analysis to detect malicious ac...; Question 100: In which scenario is endpoint-based security the solution?...; Question 101: Which two configurations must be made on Cisco ISE and on Ci...; Question 102: Which type of encryption uses a public key and private Key?...; Question 103: Which Cisco Umbrella package supports selective proxy for in...; Question 104: A network engineer must create a workflow to detect when a d...; Question 105: An engineer must configure Cisco AMP for Endpoints so that i...; Question 106: What is the process of performing automated static and dynam...; Question 107: An engineer must deploy 802.1X to a Cisco network switch. 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An engineer must enable secure SSH pro...; Question 188: An administrator needs to be able to have a router securely ...; Question 189: What are two characteristics of the RESTful architecture use...; Question 190: In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response...; Question 191: A Cisco AMP for Endpoints administrator configures a custom ...; Question 192: Which two criteria must a certificate meet before the Cisco ...; Question 193: In which two customer environments is the Cisco WSAv connect...; Question 194: What is an advantage of network telemetry over SNMP polls?...; Question 195: What are two security benefits of an MDM deployment? (Choose...; Question 196: Which two Cisco ISE components must be configured for BYOD? ...; Question 197: Refer to the exhibit. Which command was used to display this...; Question 198: Drag and Drop Question An engineer must configure a Cisco sw...; Question 199: What is the benefit of integrating cisco ISE with a MDM solu...; Question 200: A network engineer must configure a Cisco router to use a RA...; Question 201: What is the role of an endpoint in protecting a user from a ...; Question 202: An administrator needs to configure the Cisco ASA via ASDM s...; Question 203: Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures a networ...; Question 204: Which compliance status is shown when a configured posture p...; Question 205: When NetFlow is applied to an interface, which component cre...; Question 206: What is a characteristic of traffic storm control behavior?...; Question 207: What are two targets in cross-site scripting attacks? 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(Choose two.)...; Question 225: Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL inj...; Question 226: An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on...; Question 227: Which Cisco DNA Center Intent API action is used to retrieve...; Question 228: Which two aspects of the cloud PaaS model are managed by the...; Question 229: Which Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense 4100 Series deplo...; Question 230: Which Cisco firewall solution supports configuration via Cis...; Question 231: What is the process In DevSecOps where all changes In the ce...; Question 232: An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that hav...; Question 233: What is an attribute of Structured Threat Information eXpres...; Question 234: Which feature does Cisco Umbrella use to protect all communi...; Question 235: An engineer is implementing Cisco CES in an existing Microso...; Question 236: What are the components of endpoint protection against socia...; Question 237: Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the common security thr...; Question 238: Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol should be used to encry...; Question 239: What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection?...; Question 240: Which Cisco security solution determines if an endpoint has ...; Question 241: A security administrator is designing an email protection so...; Question 242: An organization is trying to improve their Defense in Depth ...; Question 243: An organization has noticed an increase in malicious content...; Question 244: An engineer migrates a web server to the cloud in a platform...; Question 245: Which baseline form of telemetry is recommended for network ...; Question 246: Which VPN provides scalability for organizations with many r...; Question 247: Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is implementing a n...; Question 248: Which method is used to deploy certificates and configure th...; Question 249: Which Cisco AMP feature allows an engineer to look back to t...; Question 250: Which two authentication schemes does Active Directory use f...; Question 251: Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cis...; Question 252: Which function is included when Cisco AMP is added to web se...; Question 253: A Cisco ISE engineer configures Central Web Authentication (...; Question 254: What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Direct...; Question 255: What is a feature of Cisco NetFlow Secure Event Logging for ...; Question 256: A network administrator must configure SaaS access control o...; Question 257: Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cis...; Question 258: Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to e...; Question 259: What has driven an increase in the need for endpoint-based s...; Question 260: Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a new Cisco...; Question 261: How does Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection protect users?...; Question 262: Which term describes when the Cisco Secure Firewall download...; Question 263: Refer to the exhibit. How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic...; Question 264: An engineer has enabled LDAP accept queries on a listener. M...; Question 265: Which file type is supported when performing a bulk upload o...; Question 266: An engineer configured a new network identity in Cisco Umbre...; Question 267: How should an organization gain visibility into encrypted fl...; Question 268: What are two characteristics of Cisco Catalyst Center APIs? ...; Question 269: An engineer has been tasked with configuring a Cisco FTD to ...; Question 270: Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose t...; Question 271: Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programmi...; Question 272: Which third-party vendor platform integrates with Cisco Secu...; Question 273: Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the Cisco Secure Email ...; Question 274: After a malware infection, a security engineer must create a...; Question 275: An email containing a URL passes through the Cisco Secure Em...; Question 276: Which Cisco platform onboards the endpoint and can issue a C...; Question 277: Which protocol provides the strongest throughput performance...; Question 278: What are two functionalities of northbound and southbound AP...; Question 279: Which capability is exclusive to a Cisco AMP public cloud in...; Question 280: Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the solutions from the ...; Question 281: Due to a traffic storm on the network, two interfaces were e...; Question 282: What is considered a cloud data breach?...; Question 283: What provides visibility and awareness into what is currentl...; Question 284: Which two features are used to configure Cisco Secure Email ...; Question 285: Which method is used on a Cisco IOS router to redirect traff...; Question 286: Which feature must be configured before implementing NetFlow...; Question 287: An engineer must register a fixed network on a Cisco Umbrell...; Question 288: Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with...; Question 289: Which form of attack is launched using botnets?...; Question 290: What is capability of EPP compared to EDR?...; Question 291: Which API is used for Content Security?...; Question 292: A networking team must harden an organization's core switch ...; Question 293: Which two features of Cisco Email Security can protect your ...; Question 294: What is the purpose of a denial-of-service attack?...; Question 295: Which two aspects of the IaaS cloud service model are manage...; Question 296: Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures com...; Question 297: Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability t...; Question 298: Which security solution is used for posture assessment of th...; Question 299: Which technology provides a combination of endpoint protecti...; Question 300: Which RADIUS attribute can you use to filter MAB requests in...; Question 301: Which feature requires that network telemetry be enabled?...; Question 302: A hacker initiated a social engineering attack and stole use...; Question 303: What is an attribute of Cisco Talos?...; Question 304: An administrator is configuring NTP on Cisco ASA via ASDM an...; Question 305: Which role is a default guest type in Cisco ISE?...; Question 306: Which capability is provided by application visibility and c...; Question 307: Which feature is leveraged by advanced antimalware capabilit...; Question 308: Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes op...; Question 309: What is the most commonly used protocol for network telemetr...; Question 310: Which action adds IOCs to customize detections for a new att...; Question 311: An engineer must create a new custom URL on a Cisco Secure W...; Question 312: What are two benefits of using Cisco Duo as an MFA solution?...; Question 313: Which action must be taken in the AMP for Endpoints console ...; Question 314: A company named ABC.inc recently deployed a new website name...; Question 315: What is a benefit of an endpoint patch management strategy?...; Question 316: An engineer must use Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center...; Question 317: What provides the ability to program and monitor networks fr...; Question 318: Which Cisco AnyConnect module is integrated with Splunk Ente...; Question 319: A security audit recently revealed that an administrator is ...; Question 320: What is a difference between an EPP and EDR?...; Question 321: Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must configure AAA au...; Question 322: What is a benefit of performing device compliance?...; Question 323: What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE ...; Question 324: What is a benefit of using Cisco CWS compared to an on-premi...; Question 325: An engineer is configuring a Cisco Secure Email Gateway and ...; Question 326: Which group within Cisco writes and publishes a weekly newsl...; Question 327: A malicious user gained network access by spoofing printer c...; Question 328: An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upo...; Question 329: What is the purpose of CA in a PKI?...; Question 330: Which Cisco solution integrates industry-leading artificial ...; Question 331: Which Cisco platform processes behavior baselines, monitors ...; Question 332: Which two products are used to forecast capacity needs accur...; Question 333: Drag and Drop Question Refer to the exhibit. 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An engineer must ensure that SSH and c...; Question 371: Which Cisco WSA feature supports access control using URL ca...; Question 372: What is the benefit of installing Cisco AMP for Endpoints on...; Question 373: What is a benefit of an endpoint patch management strategy?...; Question 374: Which platform uses Cyber Threat Intelligence as its main so...; Question 375: Which option is the main function of Cisco Firepower impact ...; Question 376: Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances...; Question 377: Refer to the exhibit. 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(Choose two....; Question 390: Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the security solutions ...; Question 391: How does Cisco Secure Endpoint provide next-generation prote...; Question 392: What must be disabled on a Cisco Secure Web Appliance to ens...; Question 393: A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a ...; Question 394: What is the purpose of the Trusted Automated exchange cyber ...; Question 395: Refer to the exhibit. Logins from internal users to a Cisco ...; Question 396: What is a benefit of a Cisco Secure Email Gateway Virtual as...; Question 397: How many interfaces per bridge group does an ASA bridge grou...; Question 398: For Cisco IOS PKI, which two types of Servers are used as a ...; Question 399: An organization is implementing AAA for their users. They ne...; Question 400: An engineer wants to generate NetFlow records on traffic tra...; Question 401: Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the posture assessment ...; Question 402: Which type of attack is social engineering?...; Question 403: Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePOWER modu...; Question 404: Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthoriz...; Question 405: What is a characteristic of a man-in-the-middle attack?...; Question 406: Which two parameters are used to prevent a data breach in th...; Question 407: Which kind of API that is used with Cisco DNA Center provisi...; Question 408: A security engineer configures a Cisco Secure Email Gateway ...; Question 409: An organization wants to implement a cloud-delivered and Saa...; Question 410: After deploying a Cisco Secure Email Gateway on your network...; Question 411: Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a site-to-s...; Question 412: Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES so...; Question 413: What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear ...

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