200-301 Exam Dumps | Which device separates networks by security domains?

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Question 271/470

Which device separates networks by security domains?

A. firewall

B. access point

C. intrusion protection system

D. wireless controller

Question List (470q): Question 1: What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a ...; Question 2: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An OSPF neighbor relationshi...; Question 3: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must upda...; Question 4: By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route f...; Question 5: Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by...; Question 6: When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multic...; Question 7: A network administrator must enable DHCP services between tw...; Question 8: A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud serv...; Question 9: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator has ...; Question 10: How does WPA3 improve security?...; Question 11: How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless...; Question 12: Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from th...; Question 13: A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except...; Question 14: A DHCP pool has been created with the name NOCC. The pool is...; Question 15: Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct n...; Question 16: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable pi...; Question 17: Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto...; Question 18: What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? ...; Question 19: What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless en...; Question 20: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The EtherChannel is configur...; Question 21: Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the corre...; Question 22: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) PC A is communicating with a...; Question 23: How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topolog...; Question 24: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit)...; Question 25: How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a c...; Question 26: Drag and drop the statements about networking from me left o...; Question 27: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer configure...; Question 28: Which two features introduced in SNMPv2 provides the ability...; Question 29: Which WPA mode uses PSK authentication?...; Question 30: Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines d...; Question 31: Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a thr...; Question 32: An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subne...; Question 33: Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value...; Question 34: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which interface is chosen to...; Question 35: What is the difference regarding reliability and communicati...; Question 36: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 37: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the subnet mask of t...; Question 38: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 39: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) All traffic enters the CPE r...; Question 40: What is a characteristic of RSA?...; Question 41: What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?...; Question 42: Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers im...; Question 43: What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?...; Question 44: An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided se...; Question 45: When a floating static route is configured, which action ens...; Question 46: Which action implements physical access control as part of t...; Question 47: What is the purpose of an SSID?...; Question 48: Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the...; Question 49: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which network prefix was lea...; Question 50: Which interface enables communication between a program on t...; Question 51: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 52: When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it se...; Question 53: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which IP route command creat...; Question 54: Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to p...; Question 55: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which action by the router w...; Question 56: Drag and drop the device behaviors from the left onto the ma...; Question 57: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two commands must be c...; Question 58: Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from ...; Question 59: When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router a...; Question 60: How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi c...; Question 61: Refer the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the cause of poor perfo...; Question 62: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The DHCP server and clients ...; Question 63: Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is en...; Question 64: How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local...; Question 65: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is required to v...; Question 66: Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running co...; Question 67: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R1 must be configured...; Question 68: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer configured NAT t...; Question 69: In a cloud-computing environment what is rapid elasticity?...; Question 70: How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Ce...; Question 71: Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds f...; Question 72: What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy proto...; Question 73: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must conf...; Question 74: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) IP connectivity between the ...; Question 75: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) With which metric was the ro...; Question 76: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer must conf...; Question 77: Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with ...; Question 78: What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol i...; Question 79: Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trus...; Question 80: Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet th...; Question 81: Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in presha...; Question 82: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Routers R1 and R3 have the d...; Question 83: An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication be...; Question 84: An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagg...; Question 85: When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless ...; Question 86: What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?...; Question 87: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer configure...; Question 88: Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?...; Question 89: What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)...; Question 90: What is the put method within HTTP?...; Question 91: Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets ...; Question 92: Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to t...; Question 93: Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management techn...; Question 94: What differentiates the Cisco OfficeExtend AP mode from Flex...; Question 95: What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast com...; Question 96: What criteria is used first during the root port selection p...; Question 97: What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?...; Question 98: An engineer is configuring router R1 with an IPv6 static rou...; Question 99: What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode f...; Question 100: A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor ne...; Question 101: An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship bet...; Question 102: Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a networ...; Question 103: A router has two static routes to the same destination netwo...; Question 104: Company has decided to require multifactor authentication fo...; Question 105: How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconne...; Question 106: Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection proces...; Question 107: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer is config...; Question 108: Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-ban...; Question 109: Refer to the exhibit. A multivendor network exists and the c...; Question 110: Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto thei...; Question 111: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit)...; Question 112: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Rapid PVST+ mode is on the s...; Question 113: Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?...; Question 114: How is noise defined in Wi-Fi?; Question 115: Drag and drop the HTTP methods used with REST-Based APIs fro...; Question 116: A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attac...; Question 117: What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?...; Question 118: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer executed the scr...; Question 119: Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corres...; Question 120: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer is updati...; Question 121: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The image server and client ...; Question 122: In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate fo...; Question 123: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which minimum configuration ...; Question 124: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Which action do the switches tak...; Question 125: A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and...; Question 126: SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configured in the C...; Question 127: Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power...; Question 128: Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the le...; Question 129: The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two ...; Question 130: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network engineer is conf...; Question 131: What is a function of the core and distribution layers in a ...; Question 132: What is a DHCP client?; Question 133: What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?...; Question 134: A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet i...; Question 135: When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Contr...; Question 136: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A packet sourced from 10.10....; Question 137: Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descrip...; Question 138: What software defined architecture plane assists network dev...; Question 139: Which technology must be implemented to configure network de...; Question 140: Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST A...; Question 141: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator must turn o...; Question 142: Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-po...; Question 143: Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the descri...; Question 144: What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Da...; Question 145: Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left ont...; Question 146: What is the role of community strings in SNMP operations?...; Question 147: Which switch technology establishes a network connection imm...; Question 148: Which interface is used for out-of-band management on a WLC?...; Question 149: Which device segregates a network into separate zones that h...; Question 150: Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP c...; Question 151: Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS fiel...; Question 152: R1 as an NTP server must have: * NTP authentication enabled ...; Question 153: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A Cisco engineer creates a n...; Question 154: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator must config...; Question 155: Which two server types support dornas name to IP address res...; Question 156: Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the global...; Question 157: Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto thei...; Question 158: Which type of security program is violated when a group of e...; Question 159: Which two HTTP methods are suitable for actions performed by...; Question 160: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Users on existing VLAN 100 c...; Question 161: How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the...; Question 162: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) R5 is the current DR on the ...; Question 163: Drag the descriptions of device management from the left ont...; Question 164: Which value is the unique identifier that an access point us...; Question 165: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which action must be taken s...; Question 166: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which route type is configur...; Question 167: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Rotor to the exhibit. The IP add...; Question 168: Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site 0...; Question 169: Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left...; Question 170: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator assu...; Question 171: Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a...; Question 172: What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol o...; Question 173: What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose ...; Question 174: What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabl...; Question 175: What is a difference between local AP mode and FiexConnet AP...; Question 176: What is the difference in data transmission delivery and rel...; Question 177: Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network w...; Question 178: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If R1 receives a packet dest...; Question 179: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) After running the code in th...; Question 180: Which action is taken by the data plane within a network dev...; Question 181: What is a reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?...; Question 182: Which properly is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interf...; Question 183: Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?...; Question 184: Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC?...; Question 185: Which protocol uses the SSL?; Question 186: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the effect of this c...; Question 187: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 188: What is a DNS lookup operation?...; Question 189: Which two values or settings must be entered when configurin...; Question 190: Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 a...; Question 191: Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically...; Question 192: Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet th...; Question 193: An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt...; Question 194: What is an enhancement implemented in WPA3?...; Question 195: With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server whi...; Question 196: Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface ...; Question 197: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring a...; Question 198: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which route type does the ro...; Question 199: How does authentication differ from authorization?...; Question 200: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R14 is in the process...; Question 201: The service password-encryption command is entered on a rout...; Question 202: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network engineer is conf...; Question 203: What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?...; Question 204: Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?...; Question 205: Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH...; Question 206: Drag and drop the statements about AAA from the left onto th...; Question 207: Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in...; Question 208: An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the ena...; Question 209: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which entry is the longest p...; Question 210: Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left i...; Question 211: What criteria is used first during me root port selection pr...; Question 212: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is represented by "R1" ...; Question 213: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) In which structure does the ...; Question 214: It work security team noticed that an increasing number of e...; Question 215: What are two capabilities provided by VRRP within a LAN netw...; Question 216: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What does route 10.0.1.3/32 ...; Question 217: which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-ba...; Question 218: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Drag and drop the learned pr...; Question 219: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Wireless LAN access must be ...; Question 220: Which communication interaction takes place when a southboun...; Question 221: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router R1 receives static ro...; Question 222: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator configures ...; Question 223: Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at...; Question 224: PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MA...; Question 225: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) When PC-A sends traffic to P...; Question 226: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network administrator mu...; Question 227: Which attribute does a router use to select the best path wh...; Question 228: Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management techn...; Question 229: What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)...; Question 230: What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configur...; Question 231: A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEther...; Question 232: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A static route must be confi...; Question 233: Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choo...; Question 234: Which Rapid PVST+ feature should be configured on a switch p...; Question 235: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit Router R1 F...; Question 236: What is the purpose of traffic shaping?...; Question 237: Which function does an SNMP agent perform?...; Question 238: Which technology is appropriate for communication between an...; Question 239: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is checking the ...; Question 240: What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packe...; Question 241: Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional...; Question 242: A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due ...; Question 243: A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wir...; Question 244: What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?...; Question 245: What is the definition of backdoor malware?...; Question 246: An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. ...; Question 247: Which component controls and distributes physical resources ...; Question 248: Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for diffe...; Question 249: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the subnet mask for ...; Question 250: Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the com...; Question 251: When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC a...; Question 252: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two values does router...; Question 253: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer must configure r...; Question 254: Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wirel...; Question 255: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 256: What determines the sequence in which materials are planned ...; Question 257: Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-t...; Question 258: Why would a network administrator choose to implement automa...; Question 259: What is a DHCP client?; Question 260: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) SW1 supports connectivity fo...; Question 261: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What action establishes the ...; Question 262: Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left on...; Question 263: Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for C...; Question 264: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The link between PC1 and the...; Question 265: What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?...; Question 266: What happens when a switch receives a frame with a destinati...; Question 267: What does a router do when configured with the default DNS l...; Question 268: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. The ro...; Question 269: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer started t...; Question 270: Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corres...; Question 271: Which device separates networks by security domains?...; Question 272: Which channel-group mode must be configured when multiple di...; Question 273: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) For security reasons, automa...; Question 274: What is a function of TFTP in network operations?...; Question 275: What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)...; Question 276: What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment...; Question 277: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What are two conclusions abo...; Question 278: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is asked to inse...; Question 279: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A newly configured PC fails ...; Question 280: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command must be issued...; Question 281: A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to ...; Question 282: Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require ext...; Question 283: What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?...; Question 284: A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface ...; Question 285: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the next hop address...; Question 286: Why implement VRRP?; Question 287: What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based n...; Question 288: A network engineer is implementing a corporate SSID for WPA3...; Question 289: Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choo...; Question 290: Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the ...; Question 291: What are two reasons lo configure PortFast on a switch port ...; Question 292: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which per-hop QoS behavior i...; Question 293: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator must...; Question 294: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the effect of this c...; Question 295: What is used as a solution for protecting an individual netw...; Question 296: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The entire contents of the M...; Question 297: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two values does router...; Question 298: Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corr...; Question 299: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer executes ...; Question 300: Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with ...; Question 301: When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN ...; Question 302: Drag and drop the characteristics of transport layer protoco...; Question 303: What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in a...; Question 304: When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architect...; Question 305: Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be establishe...; Question 306: Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalabili...; Question 307: An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server w...; Question 308: Which interface mode must be configured to connect the light...; Question 309: How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliabilit...; Question 310: Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto t...; Question 311: What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level mes...; Question 312: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring t...; Question 313: An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryp...; Question 314: Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 80...; Question 315: What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol ...; Question 316: Drag and chop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their ...; Question 317: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is a reason for poor pe...; Question 318: Refer lo the exhibit. What is the next-hop P address for R2 ...; Question 319: Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descripti...; Question 320: An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP...; Question 321: What describes a northbound REST API for SON?...; Question 322: Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual mach...; Question 323: Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?...; Question 324: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Traffic that is flowing over...; Question 325: What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to ...; Question 326: Which network allows devices to communicate without the need...; Question 327: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The primary route across Gi0...; Question 328: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is updating the ...; Question 329: which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast add...; Question 330: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which next-hop IP address ha...; Question 331: What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine...; Question 332: A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence....; Question 333: A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network usi...; Question 334: An engineer must configure a core router with a floating sta...; Question 335: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration enables ...; Question 336: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer has started to c...; Question 337: What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?...; Question 338: In which circumstance would a network architect decide to im...; Question 339: What is a function of a remote access VPN?...; Question 340: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What commands are needed to ...; Question 341: Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP tr...; Question 342: An administrator must use the password complexity not manufa...; Question 343: What are two benefits of controller-based networking compare...; Question 344: What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional netwo...; Question 345: Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi...; Question 346: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Rooter R1 is added to the ne...; Question 347: Which two practices are recommended for an acceptable securi...; Question 348: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An access list is required t...; Question 349: A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote acc...; Question 350: When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch ...; Question 351: Where is the interface between the control plane and data pl...; Question 352: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) After configuring a new stat...; Question 353: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration establis...; Question 354: How is the native VLAN secured in a network?...; Question 355: An engineer is installing a new wireless printer with a stat...; Question 356: What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-Z...; Question 357: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the result if Gig1/1...; Question 358: Drag and drop the statements about AAA services firm the lef...; Question 359: By default, how long will the switch continue to know a work...; Question 360: Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor ...; Question 361: Which type of hypervisor operates without an underlying OS t...; Question 362: What is the function of "off-the-shell" switches in a contro...; Question 363: Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?...; Question 364: Which 802.11 frame type is association response?...; Question 365: Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors,...; Question 366: How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?...; Question 367: When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode prov...; Question 368: Refer to exhibit. (Exhibit) Which statement explains the con...; Question 369: What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect A...; Question 370: The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into sma...; Question 371: Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?...; Question 372: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. What i...; Question 373: Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left...; Question 374: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Only four switches are parti...; Question 375: An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed ...; Question 376: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which prefix did router R1 l...; Question 377: The clients and OHCP server reside on different subnets. Whi...; Question 378: Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST...; Question 379: How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification,...; Question 380: An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0...; Question 381: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) R1 has taken the DROTHER rol...; Question 382: Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from...; Question 383: In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance ...; Question 384: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two commands must be a...; Question 385: What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?...; Question 386: Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a C...; Question 387: What should a network administrator consider when deciding t...; Question 388: A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router wit...; Question 389: How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature functio...; Question 390: What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)...; Question 391: A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is d...; Question 392: What are two functions of DHCP servers? (Choose two.)...; Question 393: Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 must be implemented on R1 to the ...; Question 394: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two commands were used...; Question 395: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The given Windows PC is requ...; Question 396: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which outcome is expected wh...; Question 397: Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking ...; Question 398: An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated rout...; Question 399: What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC...; Question 400: Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6...; Question 401: Which IPsec encryption mode is appropriate when the destinat...; Question 402: Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is en...; Question 403: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which action must be taken t...; Question 404: What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?...; Question 405: When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two featu...; Question 406: Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left...; Question 407: What is the function of a controller in a software-defined n...; Question 408: What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and a...; Question 409: After a recent security breach and a RADIUS failure, an engi...; Question 410: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Router OldR is replacing ano...; Question 411: What is a function of an endpoint on a network?...; Question 412: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Web traffic is coming in fro...; Question 413: What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)...; Question 414: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Three switches must be confi...; Question 415: Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarante...; Question 416: What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two...; Question 417: What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?...; Question 418: What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping...; Question 419: What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by ente...; Question 420: Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI a...; Question 421: Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses f...; Question 422: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring t...; Question 423: Refer to Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An enginee...; Question 424: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 425: Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?...; Question 426: A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on t...; Question 427: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is tasked with v...; Question 428: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The administrator must confi...; Question 429: When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Contr...; Question 430: Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe an...; Question 431: R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. a...; Question 432: R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing prot...; Question 433: What is the role of the root port in a switched network?...; Question 434: Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the des...; Question 435: Refer to the Exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An eng...; Question 436: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How does the router manage t...; Question 437: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring a...; Question 438: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is configuring a...; Question 439: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Host A sent a data frame des...; Question 440: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which switch becomes the roo...; Question 441: Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?...; Question 442: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) R1 has just received a packe...; Question 443: Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active...; Question 444: How is a configuration change made to a wireless AP in light...; Question 445: How does encryption project the wireless network?...; Question 446: A packet from a company s branch office is destined to host ...; Question 447: Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security set...; Question 448: What is the function of the controller in a software-defined...; Question 449: What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?...; Question 450: What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and ...; Question 451: Which action implements physical access control as part of t...; Question 452: Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures f...; Question 453: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer is in the...; Question 454: A corporate office uses four floors in a building * Floor 1 ...; Question 455: What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is gener...; Question 456: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is represented beginnin...; Question 457: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer booted a new swi...; Question 458: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which route does R1 select f...; Question 459: What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise netw...; Question 460: What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when u...; Question 461: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which plan must be Implement...; Question 462: What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a sh...; Question 463: Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between tw...; Question 464: Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and list...; Question 465: What must be considered before deploying virtual machines?...; Question 466: When an access point is seeking to join wireless LAN control...; Question 467: What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating...; Question 468: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Shortly after SiteA was conn...; Question 469: Which WLC interface provides out-of-band management in the C...; Question 470: Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same ...

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