200-201 Exam Dumps | Which security model assumes an attacker within and outside of the network and enforces strict verification

Home
Cisco
Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals
Cisco.200-201.v2024-04-19.q127
Question 64

Valid 200-201 Dumps shared by ExamDiscuss.com for Helping Passing 200-201 Exam! ExamDiscuss.com now offer the newest 200-201 exam dumps, the ExamDiscuss.com 200-201 exam questions have been updated and answers have been corrected get the newest ExamDiscuss.com 200-201 dumps with Test Engine here:

Access 200-201 Dumps Premium Version
(452 Q&As Dumps, 35%OFF Special Discount Code: freecram)

<< Prev Question Next Question >>

Question 64/127

Which security model assumes an attacker within and outside of the network and enforces strict verification before connecting to any system or resource within the organization?

A. Biba

B. Object-capability

C. Take-Grant

D. Zero Trust

Correct Answer: D

Zero Trust security is an IT security model that requires strict identity verification for every person and device trying to access resources on a private network, regardless of whether they are sitting within or outside of the network perimeter.

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Comment: *

Name: *

Email: *

Rating: *

Verification: *

Question List (127q): Question 1: An engineer is working on a ticket for an incident from the ...; Question 2: An investigator is examining a copy of an ISO file that is s...; Question 3: An organization is cooperating with several third-party comp...; Question 4: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit Drag and drop the element nam...; Question 5: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which technology generates t...; Question 6: What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?...; Question 7: Which regular expression matches "color" and "colour"?...; Question 8: What describes the concept of data consistently and readily ...; Question 9: What is an incident response plan?...; Question 10: An engineer is working with the compliance teams to identify...; Question 11: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which field contains DNS hea...; Question 12: What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?...; Question 13: According to the NIST SP 800-86. which two types of data are...; Question 14: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the potential threat...; Question 15: An organization that develops high-end technology is going t...; Question 16: What is the purpose of command and control for network-aware...; Question 17: Drag and drop the technology on the left onto the data type ...; Question 18: Which two elements are assets in the role of attribution in ...; Question 19: Why is HTTPS traffic difficult to screen?...; Question 20: A SOC analyst is investigating an incident that involves a L...; Question 21: How does TOR alter data content during transit?...; Question 22: Which classification of cross-site scripting attack executes...; Question 23: Which event is a vishing attack?...; Question 24: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which component is identifia...; Question 25: Drag and drop the data source from the left onto the data ty...; Question 26: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the outcome of the c...; Question 27: Which element is included in an incident response plan as st...; Question 28: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An analyst received this ale...; Question 29: The security team has detected an ongoing spam campaign targ...; Question 30: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which type of log is display...; Question 31: A network engineer discovers that a foreign government hacke...; Question 32: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which application protocol i...; Question 33: What is a purpose of a vulnerability management framework?...; Question 34: According to the September 2020 threat intelligence feeds a ...; Question 35: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What information is depicted...; Question 36: Which event artifact is used to identify HTTP GET requests f...; Question 37: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which tool was used to gener...; Question 38: What is a difference between data obtained from Tap and SPAN...; Question 39: What should an engineer use to aid the trusted exchange of p...; Question 40: Refer to exhibit. (Exhibit) An analyst performs the analysis...; Question 41: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is occurring?...; Question 42: When trying to evade IDS/IPS devices, which mechanism allows...; Question 43: What is the difference between the rule-based detection when...; Question 44: Drag and drop the access control models from the left onto t...; Question 45: Which tool provides a full packet capture from network traff...; Question 46: Which information must an organization use to understand the...; Question 47: When communicating via TLS, the client initiates the handsha...; Question 48: Which regex matches only on all lowercase letters?...; Question 49: What are the two characteristics of the full packet captures...; Question 50: Drag and drop the security concept from the left onto the ex...; Question 51: Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the de...; Question 52: Which process represents the application-level allow list?...; Question 53: Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful i...; Question 54: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two elements in the ta...; Question 55: An analyst is exploring the functionality of different opera...; Question 56: Which security principle requires more than one person is re...; Question 57: A developer is working on a project using a Linux tool that ...; Question 58: An organization's security team has detected network spikes ...; Question 59: What is the difference between deep packet inspection and st...; Question 60: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A company employee is connec...; Question 61: An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing...; Question 62: Which evasion technique is indicated when an intrusion detec...; Question 63: What is the difference between indicator of attack (loA) and...; Question 64: Which security model assumes an attacker within and outside ...; Question 65: Which action prevents buffer overflow attacks?...; Question 66: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) This request was sent to a w...; Question 67: A company receptionist received a threatening call referenci...; Question 68: What is obtained using NetFlow?...; Question 69: What is a difference between signature-based and behavior-ba...; Question 70: How does certificate authority impact a security system?...; Question 71: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A workstation downloads a ma...; Question 72: Which type of attack is a blank email with the subject "pric...; Question 73: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) During the analysis of a sus...; Question 74: A SOC analyst is investigating an incident that involves a L...; Question 75: A SOC analyst detected connections to known C&C and port...; Question 76: What is personally identifiable information that must be saf...; Question 77: Which evasion method involves performing actions slower than...; Question 78: What are two differences in how tampered and untampered disk...; Question 79: Exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer received a ticket about a slo...; Question 80: What is sliding window anomaly detection?...; Question 81: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which application-level prot...; Question 82: Which are two denial-of-service attacks? (Choose two.)...; Question 83: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is analyzing a P...; Question 84: How is NetFlow different from traffic mirroring?...; Question 85: What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation ...; Question 86: Which two elements of the incident response process are stat...; Question 87: Which regular expression is needed to capture the IP address...; Question 88: While viewing packet capture data, an analyst sees that one ...; Question 89: An engineer is analyzing a recent breach where confidential ...; Question 90: Which attack method is being used when an attacker tries to ...; Question 91: Which piece of information is needed for attribution in an i...; Question 92: Which artifact is used to uniquely identify a detected file?...; Question 93: Which vulnerability type is used to read, write, or erase in...; Question 94: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is occurring in this ne...; Question 95: According to CVSS, what is a description of the attack vecto...; Question 96: What is the difference between a threat and a risk?...; Question 97: A company encountered a breach on its web servers using IIS ...; Question 98: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is analyzing thi...; Question 99: What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag...; Question 100: What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?...; Question 101: Which type of access control depends on the job function of ...; Question 102: A network engineer noticed in the NetFlow report that intern...; Question 103: What is a difference between SI EM and SOAR security systems...; Question 104: What does the Zero Trust security model signify?...; Question 105: An engineer needs to discover alive hosts within the 192.168...; Question 106: An engineer is addressing a connectivity issue between two s...; Question 107: What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag...; Question 108: What matches the regular expression c(rgr)+e?...; Question 109: Which security technology guarantees the integrity and authe...; Question 110: An offline audit log contains the source IP address of a ses...; Question 111: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) In which Linux log file is t...; Question 112: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An employee received an emai...; Question 113: How does statistical detection differ from rule-based detect...; Question 114: Which security principle is violated by running all processe...; Question 115: How does an attack surface differ from an attack vector?...; Question 116: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which technology produced th...; Question 117: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Where is the executable file...; Question 118: What is the practice of giving an employee access to only th...; Question 119: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An analyst was given a PCAP ...; Question 120: Which type of verification consists of using tools to comput...; Question 121: Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kil...; Question 122: What does an attacker use to determine which network ports a...; Question 123: Syslog collecting software is installed on the server For th...; Question 124: An employee received an email from a colleague's address ask...; Question 125: Which data type is necessary to get information about source...; Question 126: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is occurring in this ne...; Question 127: Drag and drop the definition from the left onto the phase on...

[×]

Download PDF File

Enter your email address to download Cisco.200-201.v2024-04-19.q127.pdf

Email:

Disclaimer:
Freecram doesn't offer Real GIAC Exam Questions. Freecram doesn't offer Real SAP Exam Questions. Freecram doesn't offer Real (ISC)² Exam Questions. Freecram doesn't offer Real CompTIA Exam Questions. Freecram doesn't offer Real Microsoft Exam Questions.
Oracle and Java are registered trademarks of Oracle and/or its affiliates.
Freecram material do not contain actual actual Oracle Exam Questions or material.
Microsoft®, Azure®, Windows®, Windows Vista®, and the Windows logo are registered trademarks of Microsoft Corporation.
Freecram Materials do not contain actual questions and answers from Cisco's Certification Exams. The brand Cisco is a registered trademark of CISCO, Inc.
CFA Institute does not endorse, promote or warrant the accuracy or quality of these questions. CFA® and Chartered Financial Analyst® are registered trademarks owned by CFA Institute.
Freecram does not offer exam dumps or questions from actual exams. We offer learning material and practice tests created by subject matter experts to assist and help learners prepare for those exams. All certification brands used on the website are owned by the respective brand owners. Freecram does not own or claim any ownership on any of the brands.

Question 64/127

LEAVE A REPLY

Download PDF File