200-125 Exam Dumps | Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or forwarding

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Question 584/627

Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or forwarding state?

A. converged

B. redundant

C. provisioned

D. spanned

Question List (627q): Question 1: Refer to Exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown in th...; Question 2: For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physica...; Question 3: What is the purpose of the POST operation on a router?...; Question 4: Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for de...; Question 5: What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?...; Question 6: Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are t...; Question 7: Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing?...; Question 8: Scenario You are implementing EIGRP between the main office ...; Question 9: Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host ...; Question 10: Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow ru...; Question 11: Which two values are used by Spanning Tree Protocol to elect...; Question 12: Which address is the IPv6 all-RIP-routers multicast group ad...; Question 13: Which command can you enter to troubleshoot the failure of a...; Question 14: Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two.)...; Question 15: Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172...; Question 16: Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to de...; Question 17: Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Cho...; Question 18: (Exhibit) Instructions: - Enter IOS commands on the device t...; Question 19: In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices...; Question 20: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. You have determined that com...; Question 21: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. If R1 sends traffic to 192.1...; Question 22: Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)...; Question 23: Which option describes how a switch in rapid PVST+ mode resp...; Question 24: When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from ...; Question 25: Refer to the exhibit. After a RIP route is marked invalid on...; Question 26: Which two values must you specify to perform an ACL-based Pa...; Question 27: Which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25...; Question 28: Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can ...; Question 29: Which path does a router choose when it receives a packet wi...; Question 30: What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?...; Question 31: Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination rep...; Question 32: After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command c...; Question 33: Which two statements correctly describe steps in the OSI dat...; Question 34: Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given ...; Question 35: On which type of port can switches interconnect for multi-VL...; Question 36: If you want multiple hosts on a network, where do you config...; Question 37: This graphic shows the results of an attempt to open a Telne...; Question 38: What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? ...; Question 39: Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?...; Question 40: Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs ov...; Question 41: Which statement about static routes is true?...; Question 42: Which command can you enter in a network switch configuratio...; Question 43: Refer to the exhibit. 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(Choose two.)...; Question 56: Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true of the i...; Question 57: A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco route...; Question 58: Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? ...; Question 59: Which configuration can you apply to enable encapsulation on...; Question 60: What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point s...; Question 61: Which two benefits can you get by stacking Cisco switches? (...; Question 62: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which of these statements co...; Question 63: In which STP state does MAC address learning take place on a...; Question 64: (Exhibit) A static map to the S-AMER location is required. W...; Question 65: What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?...; Question 66: When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is ...; Question 67: Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true? (Exhibit)...; Question 68: What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a pu...; Question 69: Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.17.22.0 network canno...; Question 70: Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?...; Question 71: Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated ...; Question 72: Refer to the exhibit. For what two reasons has the router lo...; Question 73: Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based th...; Question 74: If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which s...; Question 75: Which command can you enter to verify that a BGP connection ...; Question 76: Refer to the exhibit. Router edge-1 is unable to establish O...; Question 77: Which functionality does an SVI provide?...; Question 78: Which pairing reflects a correct protocol-and-metric relatio...; Question 79: Which feature builds a FIB and an adjacency table to expedit...; Question 80: Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless...; Question 81: Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to ...; Question 82: Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PA...; Question 83: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator normally est...; Question 84: Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip addres...; Question 85: Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via thei...; Question 86: Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible success...; Question 87: Which type of attack can be mitigated by configuring the def...; Question 88: Which two elements are fields in an Ethernet frame? (Choose ...; Question 89: Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a n...; Question 90: Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?...; Question 91: Refer to the exhibit. Why is flash memory erased prior to up...; Question 92: Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is...; Question 93: What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network de...; Question 94: Which three statements about RSTP are true? (choose three)...; Question 95: Which of the following statements describe the network shown...; Question 96: Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a "router-on...; Question 97: Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch i...; Question 98: Which two statements about the extended traceroute command a...; Question 99: Which command can you enter to display the hits counter for ...; Question 100: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. 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Which two statements are true about in...; Question 225: Assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range c...; Question 226: Which commands are required to properly configure a router t...; Question 227: When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router...; Question 228: Which statement about the inside interface configuration in ...; Question 229: Refer to the exhibit. When running OSPF, what would cause ro...; Question 230: How can an administrator determine if a router has been conf...; Question 231: At which layer of the OSI model dose PPP perform?...; Question 232: You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its...; Question 233: In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:000...; Question 234: Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected t...; Question 235: Which symptom most commonly indicates that two connecting in...; Question 236: Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process...; Question 237: How to verify SSH connections was secured?...; Question 238: Refer to the graphic. Host A is communicating with the serve...; Question 239: Which characteristics are representative of a link-state rou...; Question 240: (Exhibit) If required, what password should be on the router...; Question 241: Refer to the exhibit. Given the output from the show ip eigr...; Question 242: What is the two benefits of DHCP snooping? (Choose two.)...; Question 243: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Based on the exhibited routi...; Question 244: By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learn...; Question 245: Which command is used to build DHCP pool?...; Question 246: Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?...; Question 247: Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to p...; Question 248: Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk...; Question 249: Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what s...; Question 250: Instructions This item contains several questions that you m...; Question 251: What are three approaches that are used when migrating from ...; Question 252: An access list was written with the four statements shown in...; Question 253: Which statement about a router on a stick is true?...; Question 254: Which two statements describe the process identifier that is...; Question 255: Scenario You are implementing EIGRP between the main office ...; Question 256: What are the two minimum required components of a DHCP bindi...; Question 257: Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN a...; Question 258: Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSR...; Question 259: Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?...; Question 260: What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)...; Question 261: What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider ...; Question 262: Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role ...; Question 263: Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in t...; Question 264: What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)...; Question 265: Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? ...; Question 266: Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally locat...; Question 267: How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address?...; Question 268: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Which command can you enter ...; Question 269: Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the diagram is ex...; Question 270: Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cis...; Question 271: Which major component of the network virtualization architec...; Question 272: How can you disable DTP on a switch port?...; Question 273: For which routes does the distance bgp 10 50 70 command set ...; Question 274: Which two characteristics are representative of a link-state...; Question 275: Router R1 has a static route that is configured to a destina...; Question 276: Refer to the exhibit. Given this output for SwitchC, what sh...; Question 277: How many usable host are there per subnet if you have the ad...; Question 278: What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an applica...; Question 279: Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choos...; Question 280: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has created ...; Question 281: The Company WAN is migrating from RIPv1 to RIPv2. Which thre...; Question 282: Which WAN topology provides a direct connection from each si...; Question 283: A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 ...; Question 284: Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address repre...; Question 285: A network administrator wants to add a line to an access lis...; Question 286: What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?...; Question 287: When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, ho...; Question 288: Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true?...; Question 289: Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link...; Question 290: A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of phys...; Question 291: When upgrading the IOS image, the network administrator rece...; Question 292: Which statement about ACLs is true?...; Question 293: Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable p...; Question 294: Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router ...; Question 295: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must establi...; Question 296: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The network administrator ca...; Question 297: The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows "PVC ST...; Question 298: Which feature facilitates the tagging of a specific VLAN?...; Question 299: Refer to the exhibit. What two results would occur if the hu...; Question 300: Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if ...; Question 301: Which three elements are field in a basic Ethernet data fram...; Question 302: Which command can you enter to display the operational statu...; Question 303: Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choos...; Question 304: Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting the no l...; Question 305: A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to conne...; Question 306: Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to ...; Question 307: Refer to the topology below and answer the following questio...; Question 308: Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assig...; Question 309: Which major IPv6 address type is supported in IPv4 but rarel...; Question 310: Instructions This item contains several questions that you m...; Question 311: Refer to the exhibit. Which command do you enter so that R1 ...; Question 312: Based on the output below, which two statements are true of ...; Question 313: Which functionality does split horizon provide?...; Question 314: What is the default Syslog facility level?...; Question 315: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. If RTR01 is configured as sh...; Question 316: Which two services can be provided by a wireless controller?...; Question 317: RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. 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(Choose two.)...; Question 339: Which three commands must you enter to create a trunk that a...; Question 340: Which of the following IP addresses fall into the CIDR block...; Question 341: Which two options are valid numbers for a standard access li...; Question 342: Which function does the IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform t...; Question 343: Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts...; Question 344: What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local addre...; Question 345: Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 a...; Question 346: Which two EtherChannel PAgP modes can you configure? (Choose...; Question 347: Refer to the graphic. It has been decided that Workstation 1...; Question 348: Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two.)...; Question 349: A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a ...; Question 350: What to do when the router password was forgotten?...; Question 351: Which type of broadcast barely used in IPv4 which also exist...; Question 352: Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowi...; Question 353: Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a...; Question 354: Which command can you enter to verify that a router is synce...; Question 355: What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Cho...; Question 356: Which type of cable must you use to connect two devices with...; Question 357: Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface...; Question 358: Which command can you enter to display duplicate IP addresse...; Question 359: The Frame Relay network in the diagram is not functioning pr...; Question 360: Which command can you enter to determine whether serial inte...; Question 361: Which three functions are major components of a network virt...; Question 362: Under normal operations, Cisco recommends that you configure...; Question 363: Which two statements about the tunnel mode ipv6ip command ar...; Question 364: What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)...; Question 365: As a network administrator, you have been instructed to prev...; Question 366: What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)...; Question 367: Which VTP mode prevents you from making changes to VLANs?...; Question 368: What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?...; Question 369: Refer to the exhibit. The speed of all serial links is E1 an...; Question 370: How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose three....; Question 371: What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address ...; Question 372: Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement message...; Question 373: Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type...; Question 374: Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis te...; Question 375: Which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 su...; Question 376: What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company ...; Question 377: Which statement about LLDP is true?...; Question 378: Which two options are requirements for configuring RIPv2 on ...; Question 379: An administrator issues the show ip interface s0/0 command a...; Question 380: Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS im...; Question 381: Based on the output below from SwitchB, which statement is t...; Question 382: Which feature is configured by setting a variance that is at...; Question 383: What will be the result if the following configuration comma...; Question 384: A network administrator is trying to add a new router into a...; Question 385: Refer to the graphic. A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 netw...; Question 386: VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if...; Question 387: Which two statements about data VLANs on access ports are tr...; Question 388: Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is des...; Question 389: Which two steps must you perform on each device that is conf...; Question 390: Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)...; Question 391: Switch ports operating in which two roles will forward traff...; Question 392: The following configuration line was added to router R1 Acce...; Question 393: Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mis...; Question 394: Refer to the exhibit. In this VLSM addressing scheme, what s...; Question 395: On which combinations are standard access lists based?...; Question 396: Which value must you configure on a device before EIGRP for ...; Question 397: What are the requirement to configure DHCP binding? (Choose ...; Question 398: What is the most efficient subnet mask for a point to point ...; Question 399: Which option is the master redundancy scheme for stacked swi...; Question 400: In which two situations should you use out-of-band managemen...; Question 401: A network administrator is planning a network installation f...; Question 402: Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives ...; Question 403: Which destination IP address can a host use to send one mess...; Question 404: Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose t...; Question 405: What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the n...; Question 406: What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:8...; Question 407: Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configur...; Question 408: What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceede...; Question 409: Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process?...; Question 410: When a device learns multiple routes to a specific network, ...; Question 411: Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true?...; Question 412: Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about th...; Question 413: Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a ...; Question 414: Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPv4 privat...; Question 415: Refer to exhibit. A network administrator cannot establish a...; Question 416: Which statements is true about Router on Stick?...; Question 417: Which three elements must be used when you configure a route...; Question 418: The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for...; Question 419: Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summariza...; Question 420: Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to...; Question 421: How to configure RIPv2? (Choose two.)...; Question 422: Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IO...; Question 423: Which definition of a host route is true?...; Question 424: Which device allows users to connect to the network using a ...; Question 425: Which NTP type designates a router without an external refer...; Question 426: Refer to the topology below and answer the following questio...; Question 427: If two OSPF neighbors have formed complete adjacency and are...; Question 428: Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by ...; Question 429: Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about ...; Question 430: Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 4 types of ...; Question 431: Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 a...; Question 432: Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly ...; Question 433: In which situation would the use of a static route be approp...; Question 434: Which option is a valid IPv6 address?...; Question 435: Which statement about SNMPv2 is true?...; Question 436: For which two protocols can PortFast alleviate potential hos...; Question 437: Which configuration command can you apply to a HSRP router s...; Question 438: Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three....; Question 439: Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255....; Question 440: A network administrator needs to configure port security on ...; Question 441: Refer to the exhibit. A problem with network connectivity ha...; Question 442: Which header field is new on IPv6?...; Question 443: If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the...; Question 444: Which benefit of implementing a dual-homed WAN connection in...; Question 445: Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a...; Question 446: Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU...; Question 447: Refer to the exhibit. The technician wants to upload a new I...; Question 448: Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?...; Question 449: A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configur...; Question 450: Which function does traffic shaping perform?...; Question 451: Which command can you enter to configure a local username wi...; Question 452: Which range represents the standard access list?...; Question 453: Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with th...; Question 454: Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and a...; Question 455: What is one benefit of PVST+?; Question 456: OSPF enable on interface with multiple ipv6 prefix which ip ...; Question 457: Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connectio...; Question 458: Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:407...; Question 459: Which two statements about 1000BASE-T UTP cable are true? (C...; Question 460: What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?...; Question 461: Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?...; Question 462: Refer to the exhibit. The access list has been configured on...; Question 463: What is the default VLAN on an access port?...; Question 464: Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose...; Question 465: Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across th...; Question 466: Which three features are represented by the letter A in AAA ...; Question 467: Which RPVST+ port state is excluded from all STP operations?...; Question 468: Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attacks? (C...; Question 469: What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to tra...; Question 470: (Exhibit) Instructions: - Enter IOS commands on the device t...; Question 471: Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed devi...; Question 472: Which definition of default route is true?...; Question 473: Which command can you enter to re-enable Cisco Discovery Pro...; Question 474: Which item represents the standard IP ACL?...; Question 475: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator requires eas...; Question 476: Which two tasks does a router perform when it receives a pac...; Question 477: Which password types are encrypted?...; Question 478: If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logg...; Question 479: Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address...; Question 480: Which networking Technology is currently recognized as the s...; Question 481: Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choos...; Question 482: Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the cur...; Question 483: Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose...; Question 484: Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface l...; Question 485: Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on...; Question 486: Instructions This item contains several questions that you m...; Question 487: Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of suc...; Question 488: Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image?...; Question 489: Which two types of information are held in the mac address t...; Question 490: Which tunneling mechanism embeds an IPv4 address within an I...; Question 491: Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use wh...; Question 492: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Each of these four switches ...; Question 493: In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 h...; Question 494: Which type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switc...; Question 495: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. On R1, which routing protoco...; Question 496: Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cos...; Question 497: Refer to the exhibit. This command is executed on 2960Switch...; Question 498: What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug ...; Question 499: Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an ...; Question 500: Which statement about spanning-tree root-bridge election is ...; Question 501: Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwi...; Question 502: Which API uses HTTP messages to transfer data to application...; Question 503: Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2? (Choos...; Question 504: What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three...; Question 505: Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?...; Question 506: Which option describes a benefit of a point-to-point leased ...; Question 507: Refer to the exhibit. An attempt to deny web access to a sub...; Question 508: While troubleshooting a DCHP client that is behaving erratic...; Question 509: Refer to the exhibit. The switches on a campus network have ...; Question 510: Which function does the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation perform ...; Question 511: Which six-byte field in a basic Ethernet frame must be an in...; Question 512: To enable router on a stick on a router subinterface, which ...; Question 513: Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link config...; Question 514: Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neig...; Question 515: Which type of routing protocol operates by using first infor...; Question 516: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the effect of the gi...; Question 517: What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing ...; Question 518: Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?...; Question 519: In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standar...; Question 520: A network administrator receives an error message while tryi...; Question 521: What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?...; Question 522: Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming rout...; Question 523: Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authen...; Question 524: What are two advantages of static routing? (Choose two.)...; Question 525: Which command do use we to see SNMP version...; Question 526: Instructions Enter IOS commands on the device to verify netw...; Question 527: Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to ...; Question 528: Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that i...; Question 529: Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a W...; Question 530: Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address...; Question 531: Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the ...; Question 532: Which command can you enter in global configuration mode to ...; Question 533: Which two advantages do dynamic routing protocols provide ov...; Question 534: Which option is the main function of congestion management?...; Question 535: Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection betw...; Question 536: What is the cause of the Syslog output messages? (Exhibit)...; Question 537: Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (C...; Question 538: While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue, show int...; Question 539: Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidenti...; Question 540: Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on...; Question 541: Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk...; Question 542: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given co...; Question 543: What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose ...; Question 544: Refer to the exhibit. What set of commands was configured on...; Question 545: Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required f...; Question 546: Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose th...; Question 547: You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will ...; Question 548: Which cloud service is typically used to provide DNS and DHC...; Question 549: A network interface port has collision detection and carrier...; Question 550: Refer to the exhibit. A technician is troubleshooting a host...; Question 551: Refer to the exhibit. Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 ha...; Question 552: What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChan...; Question 553: What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan...; Question 554: Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BG...; Question 555: What can you change to select switch as root bridge?...; Question 556: Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?...; Question 557: Which two steps must you perform to enable router-on-a-stick...; Question 558: How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit M...; Question 559: What are three reasons that an organization with multiple br...; Question 560: Refer to the exhibit. You have discovered that computers on ...; Question 561: Which two statements about switch stacking are true? (Choose...; Question 562: Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?...; Question 563: What are contained in layer 2 Ethernet frame? (Choose three....; Question 564: Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?...; Question 565: Which major component of the Cisco network virtualization ar...; Question 566: What levels will be trapped if the administrator executes th...; Question 567: What is true about Ethernet? (Choose two.)...; Question 568: Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose...; Question 569: Which version of SNMP first allowed user-based access?...; Question 570: What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?...; Question 571: Which effect of the terminal monitor command is true?...; Question 572: Which VTP mode cannot make a change to vlan?...; Question 573: Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication o...; Question 574: What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environmen...; Question 575: Which statement about switch access ports is true?...; Question 576: Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true...; Question 577: Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco...; Question 578: Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch ...; Question 579: What is known as "one-to-nearest" addressing in IPv6?...; Question 580: Refer to the exhibit. Which address range efficiently summar...; Question 581: Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? ...; Question 582: Which technology can enable multiple VLANs to communicate wi...; Question 583: Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a f...; Question 584: Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all sw...; Question 585: When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses sho...; Question 586: Instructions: - Enter IOS commands on the device to verify n...; Question 587: Which statement about access lists that are applied to an in...; Question 588: Which command can you use to test whether a switch supports ...; Question 589: Instructions Enter IOS commands on the device to verify netw...; Question 590: Which statement about MPLS is true?...; Question 591: Which two statements about IPv6 multicast addresses are true...; Question 592: A network administrator needs to configure a serial link bet...; Question 593: Which three commands are required to enable NTP authenticati...; Question 594: Which command sets and automatically encrypts the privileged...; Question 595: What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168...; Question 596: What two things will a router do when running a distance vec...; Question 597: At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loop...; Question 598: Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuratio...; Question 599: Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mec...; Question 600: What are three characteristics of satellite Internet connect...; Question 601: How does NAT overloading provide one-to-many address transla...; Question 602: Which NTP command configures the local devices as an NTP ref...; Question 603: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. If computer A is sending tra...; Question 604: Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference mod...; Question 605: Refer to the topology below and answer the following questio...; Question 606: For which two reasons might be you choose chassis aggregatio...; Question 607: Which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 su...; Question 608: Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs...; Question 609: VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if...; Question 610: (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigne...; Question 611: Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you ex...; Question 612: Where information about untrusted hosts are stored?...; Question 613: Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?...; Question 614: Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-...; Question 615: What are three broadband wireless technologies? (Choose thre...; Question 616: (Exhibit) Which connection uses the default encapsulation fo...; Question 617: When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which...; Question 618: Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication whit PAP...; Question 619: What does it take for BGP to establish connection? (Choose t...; Question 620: If host Z needs to send data through router R1 to a storage ...; Question 621: Refer to the diagram. All hosts have connectivity with one a...; Question 622: Which additional configuration step is necessary in order to...; Question 623: What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two)...; Question 624: (Exhibit) Instructions: - Enter IOS commands on the device t...; Question 625: Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2?...; Question 626: Which configuration command can you apply to a HSRP router s...; Question 627: Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where ...

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