156-215.81 Exam Dumps | You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped.

Home
CheckPoint
Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81
CheckPoint.156-215.81.v2023-11-20.q181
Question 90

Valid 156-215.81 Dumps shared by ExamDiscuss.com for Helping Passing 156-215.81 Exam! ExamDiscuss.com now offer the newest 156-215.81 exam dumps, the ExamDiscuss.com 156-215.81 exam questions have been updated and answers have been corrected get the newest ExamDiscuss.com 156-215.81 dumps with Test Engine here:

Access 156-215.81 Dumps Premium Version
(414 Q&As Dumps, 35%OFF Special Discount Code: freecram)

<< Prev Question Next Question >>

Question 90/181

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don't have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

A. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C. fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D. fw ctl miltik pq enable

Correct Answer: C

Explanation
To optimize drops, you can use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on the Security Gateway23. Priority Queues are a mechanism that prioritizes part of the traffic when the Security Gateway is stressed and needs to drop packets. Dynamic Dispatcher is a feature that dynamically assigns new connections to a CoreXL FW instance based on the utilization of CPU cores. To enable both features, you need to run the command fw ctl multik set_mode 9 on the Security Gateway4. Therefore, the correct answer is C. fw ctl multik set_mode 9. References: CoreXL Dynamic Dispatcher - Check Point Software, Firewall Priority Queues in R80.x / R81.x - Check Point Software, Separate Config for Dynamic Dispatcher and Priority Queues

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Comment: *

Name: *

Email: *

Rating: *

Verification: *

Question List (181q): Question 1: What is the user ID of a user that have all the privileges o...; Question 2: In HTTPS Inspection policy, what actions are available in th...; Question 3: In which scenario will an administrator need to manually def...; Question 4: Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode on th...; Question 5: Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure n...; Question 6: What is the most complete definition of the difference betwe...; Question 7: The "Hit count" feature allows tracking the number of connec...; Question 8: What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?...; Question 9: Which of the following is NOT a tracking option? (Select thr...; Question 10: For Automatic Hide NAT rules created by the administrator wh...; Question 11: To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool wo...; Question 12: What needs to be configured if the NAT property 'Translate d...; Question 13: You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that...; Question 14: Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic c...; Question 15: In order to modify Security Policies, the administrator can ...; Question 16: When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can a...; Question 17: URL Filtering cannot be used to:...; Question 18: Fill in the blanks: Default port numbers for an LDAP server ...; Question 19: Core Protections are installed as part of what Policy?...; Question 20: Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ____...; Question 21: Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet taggin...; Question 22: Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?...; Question 23: What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?...; Question 24: What are the advantages of a "shared policy" in R80?...; Question 25: When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can ...; Question 26: What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy La...; Question 27: Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles...; Question 28: Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?...; Question 29: Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade",...; Question 30: Which command shows the installed licenses?...; Question 31: Which of the following cannot be configured in an Access Rol...; Question 32: Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using w...; Question 33: Security Zones do no work with what type of defined rule?...; Question 34: What are the two types of NAT supported by the Security Gate...; Question 35: The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh. How do you chan...; Question 36: A network administrator has informed you that they have iden...; Question 37: Which one of the following is TRUE?...; Question 38: Which information is included in the "Extended Log" tracking...; Question 39: There are four policy types available for each policy packag...; Question 40: What is the BEST method to deploy Identity Awareness for roa...; Question 41: Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network acc...; Question 42: What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Th...; Question 43: What is a role of Publishing?; Question 44: Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the...; Question 45: If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to "First", what is...; Question 46: Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon...; Question 47: Name the file that is an electronically signed file used by ...; Question 48: Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, ...; Question 49: Which of the following methods can be used to update the tru...; Question 50: True or False: In R80, more than one administrator can login...; Question 51: What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?...; Question 52: Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R80.x...; Question 53: Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Cap...; Question 54: Choose what BEST describes a Session...; Question 55: An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the ...; Question 56: Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection f...; Question 57: Which Check Point Software Wade provides visibility of users...; Question 58: Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default i...; Question 59: Which of the following is considered to be the more secure a...; Question 60: Which repositories are installed on the Security Management ...; Question 61: What technologies are used to deny or permit network traffic...; Question 62: Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway...; Question 63: In which deployment is the security management server and Se...; Question 64: In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Secu...; Question 65: What are the types of Software Containers?...; Question 66: Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from reque...; Question 67: Fill in the bank: In Office mode, a Security Gateway assigns...; Question 68: Which back up method uses the command line to create an imag...; Question 69: How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating ...; Question 70: Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates ...; Question 71: Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardw...; Question 72: At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) cr...; Question 73: Which option will match a connection regardless of its assoc...; Question 74: Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Se...; Question 75: Fill in the blank: To create policy for traffic to or from a...; Question 76: View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left co...; Question 77: Which Check Point software blade provides Application Securi...; Question 78: Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a___________s...; Question 79: Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management...; Question 80: John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be con...; Question 81: Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used ...; Question 82: Fill in the blank RADIUS protocol uses_____to communicate wi...; Question 83: What default layers are included when creating a new policy ...; Question 84: When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address othe...; Question 85: When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address oth...; Question 86: Which of the following are types of VPN communities?...; Question 87: Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. W...; Question 88: What are two basic rules Check Point recommending for buildi...; Question 89: What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?...; Question 90: You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usual...; Question 91: Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successful...; Question 92: Using R80 Smart Console, what does a "pencil icon" in a rule...; Question 93: Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?...; Question 94: What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for...; Question 95: SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on thei...; Question 96: After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you...; Question 97: What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check ...; Question 98: After trust has been established between the Check Point com...; Question 99: How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?...; Question 100: When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happe...; Question 101: Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC u...; Question 102: Fill in the blank: When a policy package is installed, _____...; Question 103: An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN betwe...; Question 104: Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for...; Question 105: Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and ...; Question 106: One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent ad...; Question 107: Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check...; Question 108: Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?...; Question 109: Examine the sample Rule Base. (Exhibit) What will be the res...; Question 110: Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that ...; Question 111: If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to "First", what is...; Question 112: In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or...; Question 113: How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?...; 1 commentQuestion 114: What are the three deployment considerations for a secure ne...; Question 115: From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operatio...; Question 116: Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipu...; Question 117: What is the default shell for the command line interface?...; Question 118: Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model?...; Question 119: What is the purpose of the CPCA process?...; Question 120: What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each hos...; Question 121: In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated....; Question 122: When a gateway requires user information for authentication,...; Question 123: When should you generate new licenses?...; Question 124: Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the securi...; Question 125: Which SmartConsole tab shows logs and detects security threa...; Question 126: Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensiv...; Question 127: When enabling tracking on a rule, what is the default option...; Question 128: Which of the following is used to initially create trust bet...; Question 129: The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was ...; Question 130: In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can per...; Question 131: Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ________...; Question 132: When comparing Stateful Inspection and Packet Filtering, wha...; Question 133: Which of the following is NOT a valid configuration screen o...; Question 134: Which of the following log queries would show only dropped p...; Question 135: Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them...; Question 136: Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for ...; Question 137: To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway...; Question 138: URL Filtering employs a technology, which educates users on ...; Question 139: Log query results can be exported to what file format?...; Question 140: Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the tra...; Question 141: Which type of Check Point license ties the package license t...; Question 142: You are asked to check the status of several user-mode proce...; Question 143: Where can alerts be viewed?; Question 144: In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant f...; Question 145: Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support id...; Question 146: Why is a Central License the preferred and recommended metho...; Question 147: Fill in the blank: It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule ...; Question 148: If an administrator wants to restrict access to a network re...; Question 149: Fill in the blank: When LDAP is integrated with Check Point ...; Question 150: Security Gateway software blades must be attached to what?...; Question 151: Name the authentication method that requires token authentic...; Question 152: The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to ...; Question 153: Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and securi...; Question 154: Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IK...; Question 155: What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?...; Question 156: What are the two elements of address translation rules?...; Question 157: In a Distributed deployment, the Security Gateway and the Se...; Question 158: Which statement is TRUE of anti-spoofing?...; Question 159: Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is ...; Question 160: John is the administrator of a R80 Security Management serve...; Question 161: DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?...; Question 162: Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN ...; Question 163: When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?...; Question 164: When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with...; Question 165: Which software blade enables Access Control policies to acce...; Question 166: You have enabled "Extended Log" as a tracking option to a se...; Question 167: What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?...; Question 168: Which of the following is NOT a method used by Identity Awar...; Question 169: Using AD Query, the security gateway connections to the Acti...; Question 170: Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction funct...; Question 171: Which option, when applied to a rule, allows all encrypted a...; Question 172: You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to perm...; Question 173: To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you s...; Question 174: Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However...; Question 175: Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?...; Question 176: To increase security, the administrator has modified the Cor...; Question 177: What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?...; Question 178: Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check...; Question 179: Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She i...; Question 180: Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that tur...; Question 181: How is communication between different Check Point component...

[×]

Download PDF File

Enter your email address to download CheckPoint.156-215.81.v2023-11-20.q181.pdf

Email:

Disclaimer:
Freecram doesn't offer Real GIAC Exam Questions. Freecram doesn't offer Real SAP Exam Questions. Freecram doesn't offer Real (ISC)² Exam Questions. Freecram doesn't offer Real CompTIA Exam Questions. Freecram doesn't offer Real Microsoft Exam Questions.
Oracle and Java are registered trademarks of Oracle and/or its affiliates.
Freecram material do not contain actual actual Oracle Exam Questions or material.
Microsoft®, Azure®, Windows®, Windows Vista®, and the Windows logo are registered trademarks of Microsoft Corporation.
Freecram Materials do not contain actual questions and answers from Cisco's Certification Exams. The brand Cisco is a registered trademark of CISCO, Inc.
CFA Institute does not endorse, promote or warrant the accuracy or quality of these questions. CFA® and Chartered Financial Analyst® are registered trademarks owned by CFA Institute.
Freecram does not offer exam dumps or questions from actual exams. We offer learning material and practice tests created by subject matter experts to assist and help learners prepare for those exams. All certification brands used on the website are owned by the respective brand owners. Freecram does not own or claim any ownership on any of the brands.

Question 90/181

LEAVE A REPLY

Download PDF File