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Exam Code:	350-701
Exam Name:	Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies
Certification Provider:	Cisco
Free Question Number:	204
Version:	v2022-08-06
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# of views:	722
# of Questions views:	32504
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Exam Question List: Question 1: Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two)...; Question 2: Based on the NIST 800-145 guide, which cloud architecture ma...; Question 3: Which statement describes a traffic profile on a Cisco Next ...; Question 4: What is a language format designed to exchange threat intell...; Question 5: Which Cisco WSA feature supports access control using URL ca...; Question 6: What provides the ability to program and monitor networks fr...; Question 7: Which technology limits communication between nodes on the s...; Question 8: Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the encryp...; Question 9: The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture...; Question 10: For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using IS...; Question 11: An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that hav...; Question 12: An organization recently installed a Cisco WSA and would lik...; Question 13: An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their ...; Question 14: What is an advantage of the Cisco Umbrella roaming client?...; Question 15: An engineer wants to generate NetFlow records on traffic tra...; Question 16: Which suspicious pattern enables the Cisco Tetration platfor...; Question 17: When wired 802.1X authentication is implemented, which two c...; Question 18: Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Ch...; Question 19: When planning a VPN deployment, for which reason does an eng...; Question 20: How does Cisco Workload Optimization portion of the network ...; Question 21: Which Talos reputation center allows you to track the reputa...; Question 22: Which two characteristics of messenger protocols make data e...; Question 23: An organization has a Cisco ESA set up with policies and wou...; Question 24: What provides total management for mobile and PC including m...; Question 25: What are the two types of managed Intercloud Fabric deployme...; Question 26: Which Cisco DNA Center Intent API action is used to retrieve...; Question 27: Drag and drop the posture assessment flow actions from the l...; Question 28: What is the primary benefit of deploying an ESA in hybrid mo...; Question 29: A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the cryp...; Question 30: What are two benefits of using an MDM solution? (Choose two....; Question 31: What is an attribute of the DevSecOps process?...; Question 32: Which portion of the network do EPP solutions solely focus o...; Question 33: Which Cisco security solution determines if an endpoint has ...; Question 34: Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cis...; Question 35: In which two ways does Easy Connect help control network acc...; Question 36: An organization wants to secure data in a cloud environment....; Question 37: A large organization wants to deploy a security appliance in...; Question 38: Which open source tool does Cisco use to create graphical vi...; Question 39: Which CoA response code is sent if an authorization state is...; Question 40: What is a function of 3DES in reference to cryptography?...; Question 41: What are two security benefits of an MDM deployment? (Choose...; Question 42: Which group within Cisco writes and publishes a weekly newsl...; Question 43: Which baseline form of telemetry is recommended for network ...; Question 44: What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connect...; Question 45: When NetFlow is applied to an interface, which component cre...; Question 46: An administrator is configuring N I P on Cisco ASA via ASDM ...; Question 47: Which attack is preventable by Cisco ESA but not by the Cisc...; Question 48: Which type of data does the Cisco Stealthwatch system collec...; Question 49: What is the difference between Cross-site Scripting and SQL ...; Question 50: An engineer is configuring web filtering for a network using...; Question 51: Which deployment model is the most secure when considering r...; Question 52: Drag and drop the exploits from the left onto the type of se...; Question 53: Which policy represents a shared set of features or paramete...; Question 54: When Cisco and other industry organizations publish and info...; Question 55: Which Cisco product is open, scalable, and built on IETF sta...; Question 56: Which role is a default guest type in Cisco ISE?...; Question 57: Which two statements about a Cisco WSA configured in Transpa...; Question 58: What is a benefit of using telemetry over SNMP to configure ...; Question 59: When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a fil...; Question 60: In which two ways does a system administrator send web traff...; Question 61: Which two deployment model configurations are supported for ...; Question 62: Which algorithm provides asymmetric encryption?...; Question 63: After deploying a Cisco ESA on your network, you notice that...; Question 64: Drag and drop the common security threats from the left onto...; Question 65: An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upo...; Question 66: Which benefit does DMVPN provide over GETVPN?...; Question 67: When a Cisco WSA checks a web request, what occurs if it is ...; Question 68: Which kind of API that is used with Cisco DNA Center provisi...; Question 69: What do tools like Jenkins, Octopus Deploy, and Azure DevOps...; Question 70: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) When configuring a remote ac...; Question 71: An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and ...; Question 72: An engineer is configuring IPsec VPN and needs an authentica...; Question 73: The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Uni...; Question 74: Which exfiltration method does an attacker use to hide and e...; Question 75: What is the purpose of the certificate signing request when ...; Question 76: In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response...; Question 77: An email administrator is setting up a new Cisco ESA. The ad...; Question 78: How does a WCCP-configured router identify if the Cisco WSA ...; Question 79: An organization wants to implement a cloud-delivered and Saa...; Question 80: What is the result of the ACME-Router(config)#login block-fo...; Question 81: Which Cisco cloud security software centrally manages polici...; Question 82: Which two services must remain as on-premises equipment when...; Question 83: Why is it important to have logical security controls on end...; Question 84: Why is it important for the organization to have an endpoint...; Question 85: Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two...; Question 86: An engineer needs to configure an access control policy rule...; Question 87: How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events...; Question 88: Which Cisco AMP file disposition valid?...; Question 89: When configuring ISAKMP for IKEv1 Phase1 on a Cisco IOS rout...; Question 90: Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to e...; Question 91: What is the recommendation in a zero-trust model before gran...; Question 92: Which solution is made from a collection of secure developme...; Question 93: Which endpoint solution protects a user from a phishing atta...; Question 94: How does Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection protect users?...; Question 95: Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability t...; Question 96: An organization has two machines hosting web applications. M...; Question 97: Which two protocols must be configured to authenticate end u...; Question 98: Why is it important to patch endpoints consistently?...; Question 99: A Cisco ESA network administrator has been tasked to use a n...; Question 100: A Cisco AMP for Endpoints administrator configures a custom ...; Question 101: What is a characteristic of Cisco ASA Netflow v9 Secure Even...; Question 102: Which security solution uses NetFlow to provide visibility a...; Question 103: An engineer has been tasked with configuring a Cisco FTD to ...; Question 104: What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXX...; Question 105: Which CLI command is used to register a Cisco FirePower sens...; Question 106: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command was used to ge...; Question 107: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator conf...; Question 108: Drag and drop the cloud security assessment components from ...; Question 109: Which IPS engine detects ARP spoofing?...; Question 110: Which option is the main function of Cisco Firepower impact ...; Question 111: Which Cisco platform ensures that machines that connect to o...; Question 112: When web policies are configured in Cisco Umbrella, what pro...; Question 113: What provides visibility and awareness into what is currentl...; Question 114: Which two risks is a company vulnerable to if it does not ha...; Question 115: How does Cisco Workload Optimization Manager help mitigate a...; Question 116: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. What f...; Question 117: Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow...; Question 118: Which IETF attribute is supported for the RADIUS CoA feature...; Question 119: A user has a device in the network that is receiving too man...; Question 120: Which configuration method provides the options to prevent p...; Question 121: An engineer is configuring Dropbox integration with Cisco Cl...; Question 122: Which Cisco AMP feature allows an engineer to look back to t...; Question 123: What is the process In DevSecOps where all changes In the ce...; Question 124: What is the difference between a vulnerability and an exploi...; Question 125: Which action controls the amount of URI text that is stored ...; Question 126: What features does Cisco FTDv provide over ASAv?...; Question 127: What are the two most commonly used authentication factors i...; Question 128: What is a characteristic of traffic storm control behavior?...; Question 129: A company is experiencing exfiltration of credit card number...; Question 130: Which type of API is being used when a controller within a s...; Question 131: A network engineer must migrate a Cisco WSA virtual applianc...; Question 132: With Cisco AMP for Endpoints, which option shows a list of a...; Question 133: What is a key difference between Cisco Firepower and Cisco A...; Question 134: An engineer is configuring Cisco Umbrella and has an identit...; Question 135: Which industry standard is used to integrate Cisco ISE and p...; Question 136: Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connec...; Question 137: An organization has two systems in their DMZ that have an un...; Question 138: Drag and drop the solutions from the left onto the solution'...; Question 139: A Cisco FTD engineer is creating a new IKEv2 policy called s...; Question 140: Using Cisco Cognitive Threat Analytics, which platform autom...; Question 141: An organization has noticed an increase in malicious content...; Question 142: An administrator configures a new destination list in Cisco ...; Question 143: Which benefit does endpoint security provide the overall sec...; Question 144: What is the purpose of joining Cisco WSAs to an appliance gr...; Question 145: What is a characteristic of a bridge group in ASA Firewall t...; Question 146: Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover...; Question 147: Which two probes are configured to gather attributes of conn...; Question 148: An engineer enabled SSL decryption for Cisco Umbrella intell...; Question 149: Which feature is configured for managed devices in the devic...; Question 150: Which system performs compliance checks and remote wiping?...; Question 151: What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Co...; Question 152: Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthoriz...; Question 153: Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes op...; Question 154: Which two criteria must a certificate meet before the WSA us...; Question 155: What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Th...; Question 156: Which Cisco platform processes behavior baselines, monitors ...; Question 157: An engineer needs to add protection for data in transit and ...; Question 158: Why is it important to have a patching strategy for endpoint...; Question 159: A network administrator is configuring SNMPv3 on a new route...; Question 160: What is the role of an endpoint in protecting a user from a ...; Question 161: Which two solutions help combat social engineering and phish...; Question 162: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator is adding a...; Question 163: A small organization needs to reduce the VPN bandwidth load ...; Question 164: What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear ...; Question 165: Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud co...; Question 166: Which factor must be considered when choosing the on-premise...; Question 167: What are two ways a network administrator transparently iden...; Question 168: An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an alr...; Question 169: What is the term for having information about threats and th...; Question 170: A malicious user gained network access by spoofing printer c...; Question 171: Drag and drop the NetFlow export formats from the left onto ...; Question 172: Which encryption algorithm provides highly secure VPN commun...; Question 173: Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor auth...; Question 174: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The DHCP snooping database r...; Question 175: Which type of algorithm provides the highest level of protec...; Question 176: Which component of Cisco umbrella architecture increases rel...; Question 177: Which attack type attempts to shut down a machine or network...; Question 178: What is the Cisco API-based broker that helps reduce comprom...; Question 179: Which compliance status is shown when a configured posture p...; Question 180: Which security solution protects users leveraging DNS-layer ...; Question 181: Which two cryptographic algorithms are used with IPsec? (Cho...; Question 182: An administrator is adding a new switch onto the network and...; Question 183: Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration item makes it poss...; Question 184: Which open standard creates a framework for sharing threat i...; Question 185: What is a required prerequisite to enable malware file scann...; Question 186: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network engineer is testin...; Question 187: An administrator is adding a new Cisco ISE node to an existi...; Question 188: A company discovered an attack propagating through their net...; Question 189: What limits communication between applications or containers...; Question 190: Which function is the primary function of Cisco AMP threat G...; Question 191: Which two fields are defined in the NetFlow flow? (Choose tw...; Question 192: Which cloud model is a collaborative effort where infrastruc...; Question 193: Which Cisco solution extends network visibility, threat dete...; Question 194: A network administrator needs to find out what assets curren...; Question 195: Which solution supports high availability in routed or trans...; Question 196: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What are two indications of ...; Question 197: Which solution allows an administrator to provision, monitor...; Question 198: An engineer adds a custom detection policy to a Cisco AMP de...; Question 199: Drag and drop the capabilities of Cisco Firepower versus Cis...; Question 200: Which characteristic is unique to a Cisco WSAv as compared t...; Question 201: A network engineer entered the snmp-server user asmith myv7 ...; Question 202: An organization is selecting a cloud architecture and does n...; Question 203: How does DNS Tunneling exfiltrate data?...; Question 204: A customer has various external HTTP resources available inc...

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