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Exam Code:	200-201
Exam Name:	Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals
Certification Provider:	Cisco
Free Question Number:	208
Version:	v2025-12-12
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# of Questions views:	2721
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Exam Question List: Question 1: What is the purpose of command and control for network-aware...; Question 2: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A security analyst is invest...; Question 3: A security specialist notices 100 HTTP GET and POST requests...; Question 4: Which option describes indicators of attack?...; Question 5: A company had a recent breach and lost confidential data to ...; Question 6: A security expert is working on a copy of the evidence, an I...; Question 7: The security team has detected an ongoing spam campaign targ...; Question 8: Which two components reduce the attack surface on an endpoin...; Question 9: Which information must an organization use to understand the...; Question 10: Which type of data is used to detect anomalies in the networ...; Question 11: What is a description of a social engineering attack?...; Question 12: Which security principle is violated by running all processe...; Question 13: The SOC team has confirmed a potential indicator of compromi...; Question 14: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is depicted in the exhi...; Question 15: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the potential threat...; Question 16: A CMS plugin creates two files that are accessible from the ...; Question 17: An engineer needs to discover alive hosts within the 192.168...; Question 18: Which regular expression matches "color" and "colour"?...; Question 19: Which NIST IR category stakeholder is responsible for coordi...; Question 20: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the outcome of the c...; Question 21: What is the virtual address space for a Windows process?...; Question 22: What are the two differences between vulnerability and explo...; Question 23: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which type of evidence is th...; Question 24: What is an advantage of symmetric over asymmetric encryption...; Question 25: What describes the impact of false-positive alerts compared ...; Question 26: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A workstation downloads a ma...; Question 27: Why is HTTPS traffic difficult to screen?...; Question 28: Which vulnerability type is used to read, write, or erase in...; Question 29: What is the difference between a threat and an exploit?...; Question 30: Which action prevents buffer overflow attacks?...; Question 31: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the expected result ...; Question 32: What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?...; Question 33: A network engineer informed a security team of a large amoun...; Question 34: An organization is cooperating with several third-party comp...; Question 35: What is a scareware attack?; Question 36: An organization has recently adjusted its security stance in...; Question 37: Which utility blocks a host portscan?...; Question 38: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An attacker scanned the serv...; Question 39: What is the practice of giving employees only those permissi...; Question 40: An engineer received a ticket to investigate a potentially m...; Question 41: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which application-level prot...; Question 42: Why should an engineer use a full packet capture to investig...; Question 43: A security incident occurred with the potential of impacting...; Question 44: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What does this output indica...; Question 45: What is the communication channel established from a comprom...; Question 46: What is the difference between the rule-based detection when...; Question 47: Refer to the exhibit (Exhibit) An engineer is analyzing DNS ...; Question 48: What does cyber attribution identify in an investigation?...; Question 49: Which open-sourced packet capture tool uses Linux and Mac OS...; Question 50: An analyst received a ticket about degraded processing capab...; Question 51: What is the difference between attack surface and vulnerabil...; Question 52: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. A secu...; Question 53: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit A penet...; Question 54: What is a difference between SIEM and SOAR?...; Question 55: An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing...; Question 56: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What must be interpreted fro...; Question 57: An engineer runs a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis too...; Question 58: An analyst received an alert on their desktop computer showi...; Question 59: What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?...; Question 60: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is occurring within the...; Question 61: What is sliding window anomaly detection?...; Question 62: According to the September 2020 threat intelligence feeds a ...; Question 63: Which list identifies the information that the client sends ...; Question 64: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An eng...; Question 65: What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk im...; Question 66: What describes the concept of data consistently and readily ...; Question 67: What are two differences in how tampered and untampered disk...; Question 68: What is a disadvantage of the asymmetric encryption system?...; Question 69: How is NetFlow different from traffic mirroring?...; Question 70: What technology should be used for the verified and secure e...; Question 71: Which two elements of the incident response process are stat...; Question 72: Which statement describes indicators of attack?...; Question 73: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which type of log is display...; Question 74: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which type of attack is bein...; Question 75: Which evasion technique is a function of ransomware?...; Question 76: Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts...; Question 77: A company receptionist received a threatening call referenci...; Question 78: A security engineer must protect the company from known issu...; Question 79: What is a difference between signature-based and behavior-ba...; Question 80: Which signature impacts network traffic by causing legitimat...; Question 81: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) During the analysis of a sus...; Question 82: Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kil...; Question 83: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is occurring?...; Question 84: What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC...; Question 85: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit Which T...; Question 86: An analyst discovers that a legitimate security alert has be...; Question 87: An engineer is addressing a connectivity issue between two s...; Question 88: What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?...; Question 89: What are indicators of attack?; Question 90: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer received a ticke...; Question 91: What describes the public key infrastructure (PKI)?...; Question 92: What is a difference between inline traffic interrogation an...; Question 93: What is a difference between authorization and authenticatio...; Question 94: What is indicated by an increase in IPv4 traffic carrying pr...; Question 95: Which attack represents the evasion technique of resource ex...; Question 96: Which of these is a defense-in-depth strategy principle?...; Question 97: What is an incident response plan?...; Question 98: Syslog collecting software is installed on the server For th...; Question 99: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is analyzing thi...; Question 100: What are the two characteristics of the full packet captures...; Question 101: What is obtained using NetFlow?...; Question 102: Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running appl...; Question 103: A software development company develops high-end technology ...; Question 104: What is threat hunting?; Question 105: What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk im...; Question 106: What is the functionality of an IDS'?...; Question 107: A security engineer has a video of a suspect entering a data...; Question 108: What matches the regular expression c(rgr)+e?...; Question 109: Which regular expression is needed to capture the IP address...; Question 110: An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and gene...; Question 111: What is the advantage of agent-based protection compared to ...; Question 112: A user received an email attachment named "Hr405-report2609-...; Question 113: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An eng...; Question 114: Which event is user interaction?...; Question 115: A SOC analyst is investigating an incident that involves a L...; Question 116: Which element is included in an incident response plan as st...; Question 117: What is session data used for in network security?...; Question 118: Drag and drop the event term from the left onto the descript...; Question 119: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which application protocol i...; Question 120: Which technique is a low-bandwidth attack?...; Question 121: Which regular expression matches loopback IP address (127.0....; Question 122: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. The fi...; Question 123: Which data capture includes payload and header information?...; Question 124: Which CVSS metric group identifies other components that are...; Question 125: What is the practice of giving an employee access to only th...; Question 126: An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded perform...; Question 127: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which two elements in the ta...; Question 128: An engineer configured regular expression "."\.(pd][Oo][Cc)|...; Question 129: What is a difference between rule-based and role-based acces...; Question 130: An organization's security team detected network spikes comi...; Question 131: How low does rule-based detection differ from behavioral det...; Question 132: During which phase of the forensic process is data that is r...; Question 133: What does this regular expression do? 192|172).(168|1[6-9]|2...; Question 134: Which type of attack involves sending input commands to a we...; Question 135: What specific type of analysis is assigning values to the sc...; Question 136: Refer to exhibit. (Exhibit) An analyst performs the analysis...; Question 137: How does an attacker observe network traffic exchanged betwe...; Question 138: According to CVSS, what is a description of the attack vecto...; Question 139: What is the role of indicator of compromise in an investigat...; Question 140: How does TOR alter data content during transit?...; Question 141: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A company employee is connec...; Question 142: Which difficulty occurs when log messages are compared from ...; Question 143: Why is encryption challenging to security monitoring?...; Question 144: When trying to evade IDS/IPS devices, which mechanism allows...; Question 145: What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag...; Question 146: Which event artifact is used to identify HTTP GET requests f...; Question 147: An engineer needs to configure network systems to detect com...; Question 148: Which data format is the most efficient to build a baseline ...; Question 149: Drag and drop the data source from the left onto the data ty...; Question 150: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which packet contains a file...; Question 151: Refer to exhibit. (Exhibit) An engineer is Investigating an ...; Question 152: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is occurring in this ne...; Question 153: An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage,...; Question 154: What is a difference between a threat and a risk?...; Question 155: An engineer must investigate suspicious connections. Data ha...; Question 156: How is attacking a vulnerability categorized?...; Question 157: How does agentless monitoring differ from agent-based monito...; Question 158: At a company party a guest asks questions about the company'...; Question 159: How is SQL injection prevented?...; Question 160: A security engineer must investigate a recent breach within ...; Question 161: What causes events on a Windows system to show Event Code 46...; Question 162: Drag and drop the definitions from the left onto the phases ...; Question 163: When communicating via TLS, the client initiates the handsha...; Question 164: Which SOC metric represents the time to stop the incident fr...; Question 165: What is an example of social engineering attacks?...; Question 166: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. A SOC ...; Question 167: An automotive company provides new types of engines and spec...; Question 168: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which stakeholders must be i...; Question 169: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. A SOC ...; Question 170: A system administrator is ensuring that specific registry in...; Question 171: An investigator is examining a copy of an ISO file that is s...; Question 172: A security analyst notices a sudden surge of incoming traffi...; Question 173: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An analyst received this ale...; Question 174: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What does the message indica...; Question 175: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An emp...; Question 176: What are the two differences between stateful and deep packe...; Question 177: An analyst is investigating an incident in a SOC environment...; Question 178: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A suspicious IP address is t...; Question 179: Drag and drop the access control models from the left onto t...; Question 180: How does an SSL certificate impact security between the clie...; Question 181: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which component is identifia...; Question 182: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the potential threat...; Question 183: Drag and drop the technology on the left onto the data type ...; Question 184: Which evasion method is being used when TLS is observed betw...; Question 185: What is the impact of false positive alerts on business comp...; Question 186: Which two pieces of information are collected from the IPv4 ...; Question 187: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which event is occurring?...; Question 188: Which two elements are assets in the role of attribution in ...; Question 189: What is a purpose of a vulnerability management framework?...; Question 190: A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint...; Question 191: Which principle reduces the risk of attackers gaining access...; Question 192: Which tool gives the ability to see session data in real tim...; Question 193: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. An eng...; Question 194: What does the SOC metric MTTC provide in incident analysis'?...; Question 195: How does an attack surface differ from an attack vector?...; Question 196: How does statistical detection differ from rule-based detect...; Question 197: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Based ...; Question 198: What is corroborating evidence?...; Question 199: Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kil...; Question 200: Which metric is used to capture the level of access needed t...; Question 201: What is the impact of encapsulation on the network?...; Question 202: What are two differences between tampered disk images and un...; Question 203: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. What t...; Question 204: What should a security analyst consider when comparing inlin...; Question 205: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An attacker gained initial a...; Question 206: If a web server accepts input from the user and passes it to...; Question 207: What is a difference between SI EM and SOAR security systems...; Question 208: Which of these describes SOC metrics in relation to security...

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