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Exam Code:	156-215.81
Exam Name:	Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81
Certification Provider:	CheckPoint
Free Question Number:	194
Version:	v2024-01-08
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# of views:	1914
# of Questions views:	60052
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Recent Comments (The most recent comments are at the top.)

Allen - Nov 30, 2024

Hi guys, i just passed 156-215.81 today, this 156-215.81 exam file questions are valid.

Cyril - Jan 30, 2024

No.# The right answer is A :
fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on
on R81

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Exam Question List: Question 1: Fill in the blanks: There are ________ types of software con...; Question 2: Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is ...; Question 3: Which of the following methods can be used to update the tru...; Question 4: Where can alerts be viewed?; Question 5: When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the...; Question 6: You have enabled "Extended Log" as a tracking option to a se...; Question 7: Check Point licenses come in two forms. What are those forms...; Question 8: Which of the following is considered to be the more secure a...; Question 9: Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway...; Question 10: Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and securi...; Question 11: DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?...; Question 12: Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?...; Question 13: Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?...; Question 14: To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you s...; Question 15: Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?...; Question 16: Which back up method uses the command line to create an imag...; Question 17: If an administrator wants to restrict access to a network re...; Question 18: What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?...; Question 19: What are the two elements of address translation rules?...; Question 20: True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway l...; Question 21: Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R80.x...; Question 22: Which option will match a connection regardless of its assoc...; Question 23: Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network acc...; Question 24: Which command shows the installed licenses?...; Question 25: Choose what BEST describes a Session...; Question 26: Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected...; Question 27: An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN betwe...; Question 28: Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?...; Question 29: The Gateway Status view in SmartConsole shows the overall st...; Question 30: Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic c...; Question 31: While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awa...; Question 32: Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can...; Question 33: Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?...; Question 34: Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?...; Question 35: The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is t...; Question 36: Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:...; Question 37: There are four policy types available for each policy packag...; Question 38: Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), wh...; Question 39: Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the...; Question 40: An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule...; Question 41: Using R80 Smart Console, what does a "pencil icon" in a rule...; Question 42: Fill in the blank: A(n)_____rule is created by an administra...; Question 43: Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Cap...; Question 44: Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. ...; Question 45: In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or...; Question 46: Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files fr...; Question 47: Which of the following is true about Stateful Inspection?...; Question 48: What object type would you use to grant network access to an...; Question 49: What is the most complete definition of the difference betwe...; Question 50: When should you generate new licenses?...; Question 51: Fill in the blank: It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule ...; Question 52: Which of the following is an identity acquisition method tha...; Question 53: What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status: (Exhibit...; Question 54: Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default i...; Question 55: When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?...; Question 56: Fill in the blank Backup and restores can be accomplished th...; Question 57: Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what proce...; Question 58: What are the three main components of Check Point security m...; Question 59: In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?...; Question 60: Fill in the blank When LDAP is integrated with Check Point S...; Question 61: When an Admin logs into SmartConsole and sees a lock icon on...; Question 62: The SIC Status "Unknown" means; Question 63: SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything...; Question 64: Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Se...; Question 65: What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?...; Question 66: Administrator Dave logs into R80 Management Server to review...; Question 67: Which configuration element determines which traffic should ...; Question 68: What is the default shell for the command line interface?...; Question 69: Tom has connected to the Management Server remotely using Sm...; Question 70: Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipu...; Question 71: Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from reque...; Question 72: Which of the following cannot be configured in an Access Rol...; Question 73: When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server usin...; Question 74: Which one of the following is TRUE?...; Question 75: How do logs change when the "Accounting" tracking option is ...; Question 76: Name the utility that is used to block activities that appea...; Question 77: What default layers are included when creating a new policy ...; Question 78: What is the BEST command to view configuration details of al...; Question 79: What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by ...; Question 80: What protocol is specifically used for clustered environment...; Question 81: In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can per...; Question 82: Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edi...; Question 83: Which of the following is NOT a role of the SmartCenter:...; Question 84: When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repo...; Question 85: Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both m...; Question 86: Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and ...; Question 87: In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated....; Question 88: Which of the following is used to initially create trust bet...; Question 89: When a gateway requires user information for authentication,...; Question 90: URL Filtering cannot be used to:...; Question 91: Which of the following is NOT a valid configuration screen o...; Question 92: When should you generate new licenses?...; Question 93: To increase security, the administrator has modified the Cor...; Question 94: The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh. How do you chan...; Question 95: What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Th...; Question 96: From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operatio...; Question 97: To view the policy installation history for each gateway, wh...; Question 98: Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke...; Question 99: Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administr...; Question 100: How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating ...; Question 101: In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and ...; Question 102: Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates ...; Question 103: A SAM rule Is implemented to provide what function or benefi...; Question 104: Which of the following statements about Site-to-Site VPN Dom...; Question 105: What needs to be configured if the NAT property 'Translate d...; Question 106: Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Preventio...; Question 107: Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole ...; Question 108: Fill in the blank: By default, the SIC certificates issued b...; Question 109: What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?...; Question 110: Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode on th...; Question 111: Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check...; Question 112: Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for ...; Question 113: Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the securi...; Question 114: You have discovered suspicious activity in your network. Wha...; Question 115: Which of the following is used to extract state related info...; Question 116: What is the purpose of Captive Portal?...; Question 117: URL Filtering employs a technology, which educates users on ...; Question 118: Please choose correct command syntax to add an "emailserver1...; 1 commentQuestion 119: You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usual...; Question 120: Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensiv...; Question 121: How can the changes made by an administrator before publishi...; Question 122: View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left co...; Question 123: Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and ...; Question 124: What is true about the IPS-Blade?...; Question 125: You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an...; Question 126: Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all t...; Question 127: What are the three types of UserCheck messages?...; Question 128: Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ________...; Question 129: What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?...; Question 130: When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can a...; Question 131: When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happe...; Question 132: Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must fi...; Question 133: Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?...; Question 134: Which of the following is NOT a tracking option? (Select thr...; Question 135: Which of the following is NOT a policy type available for ea...; Question 136: John is the administrator of a R80 Security Management serve...; Question 137: Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists ...; Question 138: Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Plat...; Question 139: Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a ...; Question 140: The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monit...; Question 141: What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authe...; Question 142: What is a role of Publishing?; Question 143: Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point device...; Question 144: Why is a Central License the preferred and recommended metho...; Question 145: In which deployment is the security management server and Se...; Question 146: You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later...; Question 147: What are the three deployment options available for a securi...; Question 148: Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for...; Question 149: Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them...; Question 150: Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate usi...; Question 151: A layer can support different combinations of blades What ar...; Question 152: You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an...; Question 153: The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to ...; Question 154: Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?...; Question 155: What command would show the API server status?...; Question 156: Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an ...; Question 157: What are the software components used by Autonomous Threat P...; Question 158: The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was ...; Question 159: Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?...; Question 160: How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?...; Question 161: Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN ...; Question 162: Aggressive Mode in IKEv1 uses how many packages for negotiat...; Question 163: Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure n...; Question 164: Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successful...; Question 165: Which of the following is the most secure means of authentic...; Question 166: Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ____...; Question 167: Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardw...; Question 168: When comparing Stateful Inspection and Packet Filtering, wha...; Question 169: Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology...; Question 170: In HTTPS Inspection policy, what actions are available in th...; Question 171: In which scenario will an administrator need to manually def...; Question 172: Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection f...; Question 173: Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade",...; Question 174: Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for ...; Question 175: Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect ...; Question 176: Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check...; Question 177: What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy La...; Question 178: Using AD Query, the security gateway connections to the Acti...; Question 179: Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster m...; Question 180: What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?...; Question 181: Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the tra...; Question 182: Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used ...; Question 183: What command from the CLI would be used to view current lice...; Question 184: When configuring LDAP User Directory integration, Changes ap...; Question 185: What is the user ID of a user that have all the privileges o...; Question 186: Which of the following is a valid deployment option?...; Question 187: Fill in the blanks: A Security Policy is created in_____, st...; Question 188: Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a___________s...; Question 189: Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, y...; Question 190: Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform....; Question 191: In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Secu...; Question 192: Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC u...; Question 193: Which of the following Windows Security Events will NOT map ...; Question 194: After trust has been established between the Check Point com...