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Question 40/74
MT is 47-year-old man who presents to the ER with painful, red, swollen area on his left leg. His temperature is 38.4, respiratory rate 30 and heart rate 95. He has been taking cephalexin day 4 today, as prescribed by his primary care physician. His CMP is normal a CBC shows elevated WBC of 16,000/mm3.
What would be the most appropriate antibiotic/s to initiate on MT empirically?
What would be the most appropriate antibiotic/s to initiate on MT empirically?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
This patient is displaying signs of a severe case of cellulitis. Severe cellulitis is defined as having one of the following: failed oral antibiotic treatment, immunocompromised, clinical signs of deeper infection, or meeting the SIRS criteria. Based on this patient's presentation they have failed antibiotic treatment and meet SIRS criteria. For severe cellulitis, IDSA SSTI guidelines recommend using Vancomycin along with Zosyn.
This patient is displaying signs of a severe case of cellulitis. Severe cellulitis is defined as having one of the following: failed oral antibiotic treatment, immunocompromised, clinical signs of deeper infection, or meeting the SIRS criteria. Based on this patient's presentation they have failed antibiotic treatment and meet SIRS criteria. For severe cellulitis, IDSA SSTI guidelines recommend using Vancomycin along with Zosyn.
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